2015年4月22日星期三

C_TCRM20_71 Test Questions, C-TSCM62-64 Training online

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Exam Code: C_TCRM20_71
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - CRM Fundamentals with SAP CRM 7.0 EhP1
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Exam Code: C-TSCM62-64
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
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NO.1 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of
data
and information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed
schedule line
in the sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to
the
plant with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of
check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be
performed? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application
processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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NO.5 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A

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NO.6 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types
contains the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11
Description: Sales Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you
draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for
completeness and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.8 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material
entered in the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways
will the user be alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C

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NO.1 An installation of an ObjectServer on Redhat Linux has completed. The ObjectServer has been
set up to use PAM authentication. What must be increased to keep nco_pad from crashing?
A. the poolsize on the nco_pad command
B. the stacksize on the nco_pad command
C. the stackdump size on the nco_pad command
D. the memory space of the parent process to at least 2 GB
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about automations? (Choose two.)
A. Automations can communicate with each other and run programs on request.
B. Automations support full remote management of process agents from a single console.
C. Automations enable the ObjectServer to process alerts without requiring an operator to take
action.
D. Automations can be used to detect changes in the ObjectServer and to run automated responses
to these changes.
E. Automations provide an interface for defining and manipulating relational database objects such
as tables and views
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which two environment variables are set on a Windows platform following a successful
installation of IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus? (Choose two)
A. NCHOME
B. TlP_HOME
C. OMNIHOME
D. NETCOOL_HOME
E. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which command installs the probes and gateways in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4?
A. nco_patch
B. nco_install_obj
C. nco_create_integration
D. nco install integration
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which properties must be available in the probe to configure peer-to-peer failover?
A. Server, Mode, AutoSAF
B. Mode, PeerHost, PeerPort
C. Server, Connections, ServerBackup
D. Server, ServerBackup, PeerHost, PeerPort
Answer: B

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NO.6 The network operation center has two groups of users that use the native desktop. One group,
OPERATIONS, requires access to the standard event management tools like acknowledge and delete.
They also require access to some custom tools for things like basic troubleshooting (ping and telnet)
and ticket creation. The second group, NETWORK, requires access to the same tools used by the
OPERATIONS group users In addition, there are a few tools used for advanced router diagnostics
that they use. These tools are not to be available to the OPERATIONS group users. To minimize
administration efforts a common desktop menu is used for both groups of users.
The users in the OPERATIONS group use Windows desktops to run the native desktop application.
What is the technique used to ensure that they only run tools supported on Windows?
A. no additional configuration is required
B. the OPERATIONS group is configured to limit access to only those tools supported on Windows
C. all of the tools used by the OPERATIONS group are configured to limit access to only Windows
systems
D. all of the menus used by the OPERATIONS group are configured to limit access to only Windows
systems
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the effect of setting these ObjectServer properties prior to starting the ObjectServer?
NHttpd.EnableHTTP : TRUE
NHttpd.ListeningPort : 8080
A. It defines whether the embedded HTTPD server will serve files from its document root.
B. It configures the embedded HTTP server so that the interfaces are active on an HTTP port (8080).
C. It configures the embedded HTTP server so that the interfaces are active on an HTTPS port (8080).
D. IT defines the security realm name of the basic HTTP authentication value that is returned to a
HTTP request in a HTTP(401) response when invalid or no credentials are provided.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which role is required to administer groups and roles in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4
WebGUI?
A. iscadmins
B. nco_admin
C. configurator
D. administrator
Answer: A

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Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Analyst (Syllabus 2012)
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NO.1 As a test analyst you are gathering data to support accurate metrics. Which of the following
metrics would be MOST appropriate to use to monitor product quality?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Defects found versus defects expected
B. Tests run and tests passed
C. Test resources spent versus budget
D. Compliance to entry criteria
E. Product risks outstanding and new risks introduced
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 What is the MOST important reason why test conditions should be understandable by
stakeholders?
[K2] 1 credit
A. They should be able to review the test conditions and provide feedback to the test analyst
B. They should be able to use them as a basis for designing test cases
C. They should be able to use them to establish traceability to requirements
D. Test documentation should always be understandable by all stakeholders
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following criteria on test progress would enable the business to determine a
likely 'go live' date?
(i) Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed
(ii) Number of high priority defects outstanding
(iii) The test team's timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing
(iv) Number of tests passed and number failed
(v) Number of defects found in each development area
(vi) The rate at which defects are being found
[K2] 1 credit
A. (ii), (iii), (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (v)
C. (i), (ii), (vi)
D. (iv), (v), (vi)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Working together with the test manager during test planning, which of the following activities
is NOT expected to be performed by the test analyst?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Review the test estimates of the test manager
B. Review the test plan for non-functional testing
C. Organize adequate test resources
D. Being involved in risk management sessions
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is a type of testing that someone in the role of a test analyst, working
with the test manager, should typically consider and plan for?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Security testing
B. Reliability testing
C. Accessibility testing
D. Performance testing
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to when the test analyst should
become involved during different lifecycle models?
[K2] 1 credit
A. In a sequential V-model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with coding
B. In Agile projects the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently with coding
C. In a sequential model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with software design
D. In an embedded iterative model the test analyst should expect to be involved in the standard
planning and design aspects
Answer: D

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NO.7 As a test analyst you are involved in the early stages of an acceptance test for a Product Data
Management system. You are asked to write test designs and test cases based on use cases. An early
version of the system is also already available. It is a known fact that on the implementation level
many things will change (including the user-interface). The tests will be carried by end-users with
much domain knowledge who have also been involved in the project defining the user requirements
and reviewing documentation.
What is the BEST option regarding the level of detail and documentation required for test cases in
the project?
[K4] 3 credits
A. Detailed concrete test cases since many re-runs of the tests are expected
B. Logical test cases supported by concrete test cases to allow for traceability and enable future
changes
C. Concrete test cases only since the end-users have extensive domain knowledge
D. Logical test cases only since the end-user have extensive domain knowledge and many changes
are expected thus reducing testware maintenance effort
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following tasks and responsibilities do NOT belong to that of a test analyst in the
context of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
[K2] 1 credit
A. The test analyst should be able to use the reporting tools
B. The test analyst is responsible for supplying accurate information
C. The test analyst will contribute to the final report at the end of the testing
D. The test analyst should write final test reports objectively
Answer: D

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function
in FileMaker Pro 13 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64.000
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 13?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two formatting options can be controlled by a layout's theme? (Choose two.)
A. The anchoring / resizing settings for a tab control
B. Conditional formatting for a value in a number field
C. The text color of a button when tapped in FileMaker Go
D. The inner shadow of a portal that is In Focus in Browse mode
E. The background color of a record in List View when a mouse pointer hovers over it
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a container field set to Store container data externally in
FileMaker 13?
A. Data will not be stored externally if the file is transferred to an iOS device and used via FileMaker
Go 13.
B. Externally stored container data will not be backed up by FileMaker Server 13 scheduled backup
routines.
C. When hosted on FileMaker Server, external container data must be stored in a subdirectory of
the database folder.
D. Externally stored container data will be embedded in the file when it is downloaded via the
Server Admin Console.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 A table in a FileMaker 13 solution has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry -Allow user to override during data entry -Require
not empty -Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported, No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the
error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two FileMaker Pro 13 objects will display data contents even if unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed timestamp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 13 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & " " & LastName
FirstName and LastName are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. A record is first created
B. Each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
C. A user selects the menu item Records> Relookup Field Contents
D. Any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. The FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.1 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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NO.2 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports destination network address
translation (dst-nat).
Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?
A. source the IP addresses of users to specific IP address
B. redirect HTTP sessions to Captive Portal
C. redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller
D. provide a telnet connection to the controller
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the diagram provided for this question,
wireless User A is associated with the Aruba AP. The Aruba controller is configured to perform L2
switching.
What will be the wireless user's default gateway?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which log type should be enabled to troubleshoot IPSec authentication issues on Aruba
Controllers?
A. Security Logs
B. Management Logs
C. Wireless Logs
D. IDS Logs
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.5 When an Aruba 6000 controller has two M3 modules installed, for which uses may the modules be
used? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. hot standby operations
B. VRRP backup
C. higher AP density per switch chassis
D. Active-Active masters
Answer: B,C

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NO: 6 Referring to the above screen capture,
which tab tells you which licenses are installed on the controller?
A. Controller Summary
B. All Wlan Controllers
C. Process Logs
D. Inventory
Answer: D

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Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 7 Which method is NOT supported to provision an Aruba thin AP?
A. Telnet directly to AP
B. SSH to the AP's controller
C. Web interface to the AP's controller
D. Console to AP
Answer: A

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NO: 8 The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B

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Topic 2, Volume B
NO: 9 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. The controller must have a public IP address.
Answer: B

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Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 10 When configuring a server group containing 3 servers, a customer chooses 'fail through mode'.
What other feature has to be enabled on the controller for this to work?
A. Machine authentication
B. EAP Termination
C. Server group fall through mode
D. MAC authentication
Answer: B

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2015年4月15日星期三

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NO.1 An administrator is creating a new virtual machine for use as a View Transfer Server.
Which SCSI controller should be selected?
A. Buslogic Parallel
B. LSI Logic Parallel
C. LSI Logic SAS
D. VMware Paravirtual
Answer: C

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NO.2 An Administrator is upgrading to View Connection Server 5.x from a previous release.
Which component is omitted from installation automatically during an upgrade?
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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NO.3 The View Composer Database stores information about which three components and connections.?
(Choose three.)
A. Active Directory Connections
B. View Connection Broker Connections
C. Replicas created by the View Composer
D. Disposable data disk created by View Composer
E. Linked-clone desktops deployed by View Composer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 An administrator is adding a replicated instance of View Connection Server to the environment silently.
Which MSI property would be used to identify the instance being replicated?
A. ADAM_PRIMARY_INSTANCE
B. ADAM_PRIMARY_NAME
C. VDM_INSTANCE_NAME
D. VDM_SERVER_INSTANCE
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two operating systems are supported for the View Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2003 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 What are three supported Database Servers for VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5
environment? (Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 4.1 U1
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 SP3 Standard with vCenter Server 5.0
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter 4.0 U3
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 Which two platforms are supported by VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment?
(Choose two.)
A. VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
B. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows XP Pro 64-bit
C. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows Server 2003 64-bit
D. VMware vCenter 5.0 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
Answer: A,D

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C_A1FIN_10 Exam Cost, C_TPLM30_65 Study Guide, C_TCRM20_71 Braindumps

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Exam Code: C_TPLM30_65
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5
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Exam Code: C_A1FIN_10
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Solution: SAP CRM
Delivery Methods: Certification
Duration: 180
Level: Associate
Exam: - 80 questions, PDF Link, Cut Score 60
Product Group: SAP Business Suite
Languages: German, English, Japanese

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SAP CRM interaction channels > 12%
SAP CRM technology and integration > 12%
CRM user interface > 12%
SAP CRM transactional processing 8% - 12%
SAP CRM business scenarios 8% - 12%
CRM Middleware 8% - 12%

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The test focuses on:
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Scopia Endpoints
Scopia Infrastructure
Scopia Mobility Solutions
Scopia PathFinder
eVident Monitoring
Interoperability with Avaya solutions
Call signaling flow - point-to-point & meet-me
Sequence of events for eVident monitoring
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Anti-Bribery / Anti-Corruption Compliance

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NO.1 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note:
There are
2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic
substitution process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer
pricing procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of
data
and information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D

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NO.4 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material
entered in the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways
will the user be alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being
generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered
goods
and the free goods.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.7 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed
schedule line
in the sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to
the
plant with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of
check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be
performed? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C

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C4040-251 Real Questions, C2010-511 Training online, C2150-197 VCE Dumps


Test information:
  • Number of questions: 70
  • Time allowed in minutes: 90
  • Required passing score: 65%
  • Languages: English, Japanese
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2015年4月14日星期二

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NO.1 The W3C has developed XHTML standards for the World Wide Web. These standards:
A. allow proprietary software to run in other vendors' browsers.
B. ensure consistent display in various browsers and platforms.
C. define a language that incorporates data structures and internal logic.
D. allow markup elements to combine both structure and formatting in a single text file.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is the common name for the practice hackers use to trick people into revealing
sensitive information?
A. Social engineering
B. Identity exploitation
C. Information probing
D. Intellectual deception
Answer:A

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NO.3 What is another name for the staging server?
A. Live server
B. Production server
C. Redundant server
D. Development server
Answer: D

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NO.4 Both versions of GIF files support small file size, lossless compression and transparency. Which of the
two GIF versions also supports animation and interlacing?
A. 87a
B. 87b
C. 89a
D. 89b
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following would typically be found in the contents of an external style sheet?
A. P [margin: 1in]
B. P (margin: 1in)
C. P { margin: 1in }
D. <P align=left> </P>
Answer: C

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NO.6 Consider the following code: <a href="http://www.ciwcertified.com">
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properly in multiple Web browsers. However, it will not validate to W3C standards. Which of the following
must be added?
A. The alt attribute
B. A linked style sheet
C. A closing </img> tag
D. An embedded style sheet
Answer:A

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NO.7 Consuela is updating her company's Web site. She wants to add an image that is 1,414 pixels by 724
pixels. Her site audience generally uses a monitor resolution of 1024x768. Using Fireworks, how can she
adjust the image to fit the users' monitors?
A. Resample the image to adjust the print size.
B. Resample the image to increase the resolution.
C. Resample the image to decrease the color depth.
D. Resample the image to decrease the pixel dimensions.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Susan is creating some additional images for her customer's Web site. One image will be used
repeatedly on site pages. However, in order to support the site's topic-specific color scheme, she wants
one shape in the image's background to be a different color on each page. What is the best way for Susan
to accomplish this task?
A. Create the image using layers for its different components.
B. Create the image using series for its different components.
C. Create the image using pages for its different components.
D. Create the image using frames for its different components.
Answer:A

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NO.1 What connectivity method(s) are available for H.323 clients to dial-in into the PathFinder
server?
A. PathFinder Client and H.460 support only.
B. Either PathFinder Client and H.460, or PathFinder Client and H.323 DirectPublicAccesssupport.
C. PathFinderClient,H.460 support, and H.323 Direct Public Access support.
D. PathFinderClient only.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can you limit the default call bandwidth for a specific user in a deployment that includes
the
iVIEW Management Suite?
A. Limitingthe bandwidth can be done only through the end-points.
B. The default call bandwidth can belimited as part ofthe terminal configuration set.
C. After the call is connected, limit the bandwidth through the meeting controlscreen.
D. Limitingthe bandwidth cannot be done for a specific user.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by the Elite MCU?
A. 480P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by SCOPIA XT Desktop?
A. 448P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which activity cannot be performed by an MCU operator?
A. MCU configuration
B. Managing another conference
C. Viewing the conference list
D. Disconnecting a conference
Answer: B

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NO.6 In which slot can you insert the Master Blade in the Scopia® Elite 5000 series 3U chassis?
A. the bottomslot
B. any slot except the top slot
C. any slot
D. only thetop slot
Answer: D

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NO.1 You have set up condition type K029 as a gross-weight-calculated discount based on the
material group. You now want to implement this for ordered materials belonging to the same
material group. The system should accumulate the gross weight of the items to determine the scale
rate.
For the required weight accumulation, which of the following must you use for condition type K029?
A. Group condition
B. Condition supplements
C. Scale basis
D. Scale formula
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have configured a sales document type with the following number systems:
- Number range internal assignment: 01
- Number range external assignment: 02
- Item number increment: 10
- Subitem increment: 1.
What are the actions and consequences when you create a sales order based on this document
type?(Choose two)
A. Action: You enter a sales document number manually and save the sales document. Consequence:
A number from number range 01 is assigned to the document.
B. Action: You enter a bill of material (BOM). Consequence: The subitems are numbered with
increments of one.
C. Action: You enter a sales document. Consequence: You can enter an external document number
from number range 02 or receive an internally assigned document number after saving.
D. Action: You save the sales order. Consequence: A new sequential document number is generated
by number range 02.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Your company wants to have a new condition record for freight costs.
The condition type should consider the gross weight of all the order items and handle the following
scale:
- From 0 kg - 8 EUR
- From 1 kg - 12 EUR
- From 5 kg - 16 EUR
- From 10 kg - 20 EUR
Which of the following do you have to configure in the condition type to meet this
requirement?(Choose two)
A. Set the Exclusion indicator to net price.
B. Set the calculation type to fixed amount.
C. Select the Header condition checkbox.
D. Select the Group condition checkbox.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 How does SAP make new functions of the SAP ERP system available to the customer?
A. Via enhancement packages
B. Via Support Packages
C. Via best practices
D. Via add-ons
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Topic4,Billing (basics)

NO.5 What steps are included in the cash sales process?(Choose two)
A. When you save the cash sales, the system prints a document - BA00 - that can be given to th
e customer as an order confirmation.
B. When you save the cash sales, the system prints a document that can be given to the customer as
an invoice. This document is controlled with output type RD03.
C. When you save the cash sales, the system automatically creates a delivery.
D. When you save the cash sales, there is no need for a delivery and goods issue posting because the
customer receives the products immediately.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Topic11,Sales process

NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding partner determination are correct?(Choose two)
A. The origin of partners that are automatically determined during the creation of sales documents is
controlled using a condition type.
B. When you create a standard order, the permitted partners are automatically copied from the
customer master to the document.
C. In a partner determination procedure, all allowed partner functions are listed.
D. Partner determination procedures can be defined in sales documents at header, item, and
schedule-line level.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements regarding the organizational assignment of plants are
correct?(Choose two)
A. Delivering plants must be assigned to the same company code as the sales organization.
B. Each plant can be assigned to just one company code.
C. A plant must be assigned to at least one combination of sales organization and distribution channel
so that it can be used as a delivering plant.
D. A plant can be assigned to multiple company codes.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following document flows describe possible standard sales processes?(Choose
two)
A. Inquiry -> quotation -> value contract -> order with reference to the value contract -> invoice ->
accounting document
B. Invoice correction request with reference to a standard order -> delivery -> transfer order -> post
goods issue -> invoice -> accounting document
C. Inquiry -> quotation -> order -> shipment -> transfer order -> post goods issue -> invoice ->
accounting document
D. Standard order with reference to a quotation -> delivery -> transfer order -> post goods issue ->
invoice -> accounting document
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Where ? is your partition number

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NO.2 Press w to write on partitions table.

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
Dig Server1.example.com, Resolve to successfully through DNS Where DNS server is
172.24.254.254
Answer and Explanation:
#vi /etc/resolv.conf
nameserver 172.24.254.254
# dig server1.example.com
#host server1.example.com
DNS is the Domain Name System, which maintains a database that can help your computer
translate domain names such as www.redhat.com to IP addresses such as 216.148.218.197. As
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DNS is based on the named daemon, which is built on the BIND (Berkeley Internet Name Domain)
package developed through the Internet Software Consortium
Users wants to access by name so DNS will interpret the name into ip address. You need to
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NO.4 mount /dev/hda? /mnt/neo
4.CORRECT TEXT
Your System is going use as a router for 172.24.0.0/16 and 172.25.0.0/16. Enable the IP
Forwarding.
Answer and Explanation:
1. echo "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. vi /etc/sysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
/proc is the virtual filesystem, containing the information about the running kernel. To change the
parameter of running kernel you should modify on /proc. From Next reboot the system, kernel will
take the value from /etc/sysctl.conf.
5.CORRECT TEXT
Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command, the
shared directory is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Verify the File whether Shared or not ? : cat /etc/exports
2. Start the nfs service: service nfs start
3. Start the portmap service: service portmap start
4. Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot: chkconfig nfs on
5. Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot: chkconfig portmap on
6. Verify either sharing or not: showmount -e localhost
7. Check that default firewall is running on system ? if running flush the iptables using iptables -F and stop
the iptables service.
6.CORRECT TEXT
neo user tried by:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
files created successfully. Again neo tried to create file having 70K using following command:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
But he is unable to create the file. Make the user can create the file less then 70K.
Answer and Explanation:
Very Tricky question from redhat. Actually question is giving scenario to you to implement quota to neo
user. You should apply the quota to neo user on /home that neo user shouldn't occupied space more than
70K.
1. vi /etc/fstab
LABEL=/home /home ext3 defaults,usrquota 0 0 ¨¤ To enale the quota on filesystem you should mount
the filesystem with usrquota for user quota and grpquota for group quota.
2. touch /home/aquota.user ¨¤Creating blank quota database file.
3. mount -o remount /home ¨¤ Remounting the /home with update
mount options. You can verify that
/home is mounted with usrquota options or not using mount command.
4. quotacheck -u /home ¨¤ Initialization the quota on /home
5. edquota -u neo /home ¨¤ Quota Policy editor
See the snapshot
1 Disk quotas for user neo (uid 500):
2.Filesystem blocks soft hard inodes soft hard
4 /dev/mapper/vo-myvol 2 30 70 1 0 0
Can you set the hard limit 70 and soft limit as you think like 30.
Verify using the repquota /home command.
7.CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size
of that Logical Volume is 124MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 245MB without losing
any data. The size of logical volume 240MB to 255MB will be acceptable.
Answer and Explanation:
1. First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
2. Increase the Size of Logical Volume: lvextend -L+121M /dev/vo/myvol
3. Make Available the size on online: resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol
4. Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
5. Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h
We can extend the size of logical Volume using the lvextend command. As well as to decrease the
size of Logical Volume, use the lvresize command. In LVM v2 we can extend the size of Logical
Volume without unmount as well as we can bring the actual size of Logical Volume on online using
ext2online command.
8.CORRECT TEXT
Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the
Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes
(files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user's or a group of users' ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small
group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire
system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on
corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users
can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full,
other users are effectively denied upload access to
the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example,
if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer
could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory
(/), your system could become unstable or even crash.
You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobyte-sized disk blocks.
Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute
space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas
for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions.
Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions
of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas.
As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure
quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab
/dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data
6. edquota -u user1 /data
and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not:
Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can't cross by the user. Use the
quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
9 CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB.
Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume
500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk
partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equal-sized chunks known as
Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let's start
with some basic definitions:
* Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume
is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
* Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized
PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
* Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
* Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home
and /var on an LV.
* Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the
commands that you'll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. resize2fs /dev/vg0/lv1 ¨¤ to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
10 CORRECT TEXT
Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda?
Ormke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem
10. vi /etc/fstab
Write:
/dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
11. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:
mount /dev/hda? /data
11.CORRECT TEXT
You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and yourmain task is
Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don't know the root password.
Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab:
Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don't know the root's
password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode.
You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode
ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
12.CORRECT TEXT
There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator.
But you don't have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you
enable IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time.
# echo "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf ¨¤when System Reboot on next tme, /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file
/etc/sysctl.conf. To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter.
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
Here 0 means disable, 1 means enable.
13.CORRECT TEXT
You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 on your System. While start the system, it's giving
error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X Window
System.
Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window).
1. /tmp is full or not
2. Quota is already reached
3. Video card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.
4. xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp ¨¤ /tmp is full remove the unnecessary file
2. quota username ¨¤if quota is already reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.
3. Boot the System in runlevel 3.¨¤you can pass the Kernel Argument from boot loader.
4. Use command: system-config-display ¨¤ It will display a dialog o configure the monitor, Video card,
resolution etc.
5. Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab
id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
14.CORRECT TEXT
There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in
192.168.0.0/24 Network. One RHEL 5 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required
configuration is already done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP
Address are assigned on that Server. How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24
Network's Host?
Answer and Explanation:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
OR vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
15.CORRECT TEXT
Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤To create new partition.Type n ¨¤ For New partitionIt will ask foLogical or
Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by
pressing Enter Key.Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Speciy either Last cylinder of Size
here.Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that
means Linux Native.Type t to change the System ID of partition.Type Partition
NumberType 82 that means Linux Swap.Press w to write on partitions table.Either Reboot or use
partprobe command.mkswap /dev/hda?¨¤ To create Swap File system on partition.swapon
/dev/hda?¨¤ To enable the Swap space from partition.free-m ¨¤ Verify Either Swap is enabled or
not.vi /etc/fstab
/dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically
enabled or not.
16.CORRECT TEXT
You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50
servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from all servers
into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log from other host
configure:vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog
SYSLOGD_OPTIONS="-m 0 -r"
Where
-m 0 disables 'MARK' messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
service syslog restart
17.CORRECT TEXT
You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat.
When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You
changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a
root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
3. Boot the System on Single user mode.
4. Change the password
5. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E "NEVER" root
4. Check the file /etc/securetty ¨¤ Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
5. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
6. Reboot the system and login as a root.

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NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a question written, make successfully ping to
192.168.0.254.
Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?
2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network ¨¤What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
-Correct the file
3. Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
4. Use service network restart or start command

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NO.6 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:

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NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
Change the root Password to redtophat
Answer and Explanation:Boot the system in Single user modeUse the passwd command

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NO.8 CORRECT TEXT
Create the partition having 100MB size and mount it on /mnt/neo
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.

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