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Exam Code: GE0-806
Exam Name: Genesys Certified Professional 8 System Consultant, Genesys Workforce Management (GCP8 - CWFM)
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NO.1 In order to successfully create and process a schedule which of the following applications are
required to run?
Choose 2 answers
A. WFM Configuration Utility
B. WFM for Supervisors
C. WFM Daemon
D. WFM Builder
E. Universal Routing Server
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 In the WFM Web Supervisor, what must be used to accommodate building schedules for longer
than 6 weeks?
A. Set the end date to the date you desire that is 6 weeks or higher from the start date
B. Set the extended end date to a date you desire that is 6 weeks or higher from the start date
C. In One WFM Server application object, set the option "Schedule Duration" to a value greater than
6
D. One cannot build schedules greater than 6 weeks in length
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does "in Review" signify when performing Agent trading?
A. The proposal is being reviewed by the proposing Agent before it is sent to the second Agent.
B. The proposal has been sent by the proposing Agent. The second Agent is reviewing prior to
responding.
C. Both Agents have confirmed the trade proposal, but the trade is waiting for approval from the
Supervisor.
D. This is during a community proposal when an Agent issues a proposal and is waiting for any other
Agent to respond.
Answer: A

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NO.4 At what point can an Agent see his own schedule through WFM web Agent?
A. Once the schedule is published
B. Once the configuration, policy and Calendar are configured
C. Once the forecast is published and the Agent runs the Scheduler
D. Once the Supervisor runs the scheduler
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which WFM Server can be set up to act as a Locator?
A. WFM Server
B. Only the Primary WFM server
C. Only the Master WFM server
D. Only the Back up WFM Server
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following WFM reports is designed to show the total amount of time an agent,
team or site has spent in various states?
A. Schedule States Report
B. Activity weekly Schedule Report
C. Schedule Summary Report
D. Schedule State Totals Report
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the fallowing can be configured to send (through a customer-supplied SMTP server) E-
mail notifications to agents and supervisors?
A. WFM SMTPServer
B. WFM MailServer
C. WFM Builder
D. WFM Daemon
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://docs.genesys.com/Documentation/WM/latest/Admin/Components

NO.8 Secure Socket Layer (SSL) may be used to encrypt the WFM Web connection to which of the
following?
Choose 2 answers
A. WFM web for Supervisors
B. WFM Web for Agents
C. WFM Configuration utility
D. WFM Database
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 A new Vblock@ System 720 customer is interested in managing initiator groups and monitoring
virtual provisioning.
Which element manager would you recommend?
A. VCE Vision Intelligent Operations
B. Unisphere
C. UCSM
D. Data Center Network Manager
Answer: B

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NO.2 You need to clean up your UCS environment. You discover that you have old UCS software
bundles in your UCS system. You want to delete these bundles from the system, but not create faults.
Which action should you perform prior to deletion?
A. Delete any host firmware packages that use those bundles.
B. Change your reboot policy to User Ack.
C. Ensure that there are no pending activities.
D. Ensure that no components have this firmware in their backup versions.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are three supported disk types for a Vblock@ System 720? (Choose three)
A. EFD
B. FC
C. SAS
D. SATA
E. NL_SAS
Answer: A,B,D

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switch returns the message "port activation license not available".
How would you determine if you have sufficient licenses?
A. Run the show license command to display the available license information.
B. Run the show run command to see the license configuration.
C. Run the show port-resources module command to display the available port resources in a
module.
D. Run the show port-license command to display the available port activation licenses.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You receive a high priority new VM request that requires the creation of redundant VMs with
host redundancy.
Which vCenter task must be performed to satisfy this requirement?
A. Configure host and VM monitoring.
B. Configure a VM-Hosts affinity rule in vSphere DRS.
C. Configure a custom VM monitoring rule in vSphere HA.
D. Configure a VM-VM affinity rule in vSphere DRS.
Answer: D

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NO.6 While monitoring your PowerPath/VE licensing, you notice that some of your hosts are no
longer licensed.
In this scenario, which statement is correct?
A. PowerPath will continue to function but will not allow more devices to be configured.
B. PowerPath will route all traffic down one path, disabling the alternative path.
C. PowerPath will switch to round robin mode but will not allow more devices to be configured.
D. PowerPath will continue to route traffic but will lose some management features.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have a Vblock@ System 340 in a unified network configuration and you need to provide
connectivity for file and block storage. Which component would you use to provide connectivity
between the server and the storage resources?
A. MDS 9100 switches
B. Nexus 5500 switches
C. VNX Data Mover
D. VNX Storage Processors
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your environment uses resource pool management to automate and enforce device identities
in your organization including troubleshooting.
In this scenario, which three resources are managed? (Choose three)
A. MAC addresses
B. WWNs
C. LUN Identifiers
D. UUIDs
E. Secured Service Ports
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 While working with the Warp tool, which of the following options from the View menu is used
to show or hide the warp mesh and control points?
A. Extras
B. Show
C. Screen Mode
D. Rulers
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following Lock options will you choose to edit only the opaque areas of a layer?
A. Lock all
B. Lock transparent pixels
C. Lock image pixels
D. Lock position
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is used to hide parts of a layer with a vector path?
A. Work paths
B. Swatch
C. Vector mask
D. Warp
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which filter should you apply to best simulate a reduced depth of field created by a
photographer?
A. Lens Correction
B. Radial Blur
C. Lens Blur
D. Gaussian Blur
Answer: C

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NO.5 To adjust how each ink in a duotone image is distributed throughout various tonal regions,
which of the following should you adjust?
A. Cutout filter
B. Smart filter
C. Stacking order
D. Duotone curve
Answer: D

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NO.6 When using the Liquify filter, what tool can you use to protect specific areas of the image?
A. The Thaw Mask tool.
B. The Freeze Mask tool.
C. The Reconstruct tool.
D. The Forward Warp tool.
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NO.7 Consider the given image: Which mode will you use to view this image using Adobe Bridge?
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B. Review Mode
C. On-click preview Mode
D. Preview Mode
Answer: B

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can drag the edges of the Preview panel to make it as large or small as you'd like. In addition, when
you click in the Preview panel, the cursor becomes a loupe that you can use to magnify areas of the
preview.Answer option A is incorrect. There is no view mode in Adobe Bridge.Answer option C is
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Use the Left Arrow and Right Arrow keys to navigate to the next or previous photo. Click Spacebar
again to return to Bridge.

NO.8 Which tool should you choose for changing only the pixels that match a sample color?
A. Gradient
B. Color Replacement
C. Magic Eraser
D. Brush
Answer: B

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NO.1 The Asset Configuration Item (CI) reconciliation task automatically links assets with CIs. Which
statement is true regarding task functionality?
A. It links Actual CIs with respective Deployed Assets.
B. It links Authorized CIs with respective Authorized Assets.
C. It creates Actual Assets if a match cannot be found to existing Actual CIs.
D. It creates Actual CIs if a match cannot be found to existing Deployed Assets.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two ways to check the status of a software distribution?
A. check the Bulletin Board
B. review the Workflow History
C. Launch in Context to the external system
D. look in the Plans tab of the Releases application
E. click the Get Status button in the Deployments application
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which file in IBM Tivoli Integration Composer contains the property to filter importing actual
Configuration Items by location tag for IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
V7.2.1.1?
A. fusion.properties
B. ccmdb.properties
C. logging.properties
D. jdbcinfo.properties
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which phase of the Configuration Item audit process is the configuration process record
created?
A. Define
B. Create
C. Accept
D. Execute
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two tools can be used to add a new attribute to an Authorized Configuration Item (CI)
classification?
A. CI application
B. Actual CI application
C. Classification application
D. IBM Deployer's Workbench
E. IBM Tivoli Integration Composer
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which action can be performed In the Administrative view of the Change Window Schedule
tab?
A. merge change windows
B. change the frequency of the change window
C. add a Configuration Item to a change window
D. modify the start and end time of a change window
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two actions must be done in an activity to update the progress of a release and then
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A. Flow Action must be defined.
B. Assisted Workflow must be defined.
C. Flow Control? flag must be checked.
D. Flow Action Assist? flag must be checked.
E. Suspend Flow Control? flag must be checked.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which application in IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 is used to link an existing software
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A. CI
B. DML
C. Changes
D. Releases
Answer: D

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NO.1 Christine needs to make an AJAX call to a method named "getAddress" in her model. How
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A. <%=webAppAccess.getBackchannelURL("getAddress", false)%>
B. <%=webAppAccess.getBackchannelActionURL("getAddress", false)%>
C. <%=webAppAccess.getActionURL("getAddress", false)%>
D. <%=webAppAccess.getAjaxURL("getAddress", false)%>
Answer: B

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NO.2 Bob is wiring two portlets and intends to implement partial page refresh. Each of the following
is a correct approach except which one?
A. Do nothing because Smart Refresh is the default.
B. Use JavaScript.
C. Use the property broker and check the AJAX call option on the property broker for the IBM
WebSphere Portal.
D. Use the Event Declaration builder with client-side delivery and the Client Event Handler builder.
Answer: C

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NO.3 John is trying to wire two IBM Web Experience Factory portlets that reside on different IBM
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A. Wiring of two Web Experience Factory portlets on two different pages is technically not feasible.
B. Wire the two portlets together using the shared variable builder so they can share data via
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C. Use the Web Experience Factory Event Declaration and Event Handler builder with page wiring
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D. Use the Cooperative Portlet Source and Cooperative Portlet Target builders with WebSphere
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Answer: D

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NO.4 Page automation is a set of builders that facilitate the automatic display of data based on
metadata. What are the basic steps of page automation?
A. Receive data in a Data Page builder, examine the data, enrich the data.
B. Receive data in a Data page builder, modify the schema, apply modifiers.
C. Set up a data provider model, create a consumer model, select the highest level page automation
builder that fits the requirement, customize the generated UI to the requirements.
D. Examine received data in the context of a View and Form builder, build a presentation for the
data, document the schema.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Ming has created a form using a Input Form builder that has 16 fields to complete, but all are
very small. He wants to organize the fields in two columns on the page. How can he easily
accomplish this task?
A. Use a News Columns builder and enter 2 in the number of columns.
B. Edit the HTML template to form two columns with the DataEntryField element.
C. Modify the default Input Form base page to organize the fields into two columns..
D. Drop a Layout Column from the palette onto the group element in the Design view. Drag to
arrange the fields as desired.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Jonathan would like to document all his service provider models at once. How can he
approach this task?
A. Add a Comment builder before each SQL call.
B. Use the Service Definition builders in each one, generating comments for each.
C. Use the WebApp Documentation builder, specifying Services as the report parameter.
D. Use the Service Documentation Builder, specifying all service models and the report type.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which one of the following is true about the difference between the Action List builder and
the Method builder?
A. The Action List builder is recommended over the Method builder. In addition to using the chooser
to make a variable assignment or execute a service call, the Action List builder supports using the
picker to add programming constructs to the Action List, including conditionals and looping.
B. The Action List builder allows if/else conditionals, but does not support adding looping constructs
such as "for" loops and "while" loops. The Method builder allows the user to add looping logic.
C. The Method builder conveniently allows the user to drag and drop programming language
constructs from the palette, which are converted into Java code. The palette cannot be used with
the Action List builder.
D. The Method builder can return a value, but the Action List builder cannot.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Heinrich has 35 builder calls in a model. If he wants to see the XML relevant to one specific
builder call in the model, how should he find it?
A. Right-click the builder call and select View XML.
B. Open the Model XML model view, then search for the builder call by its ID name.
C. Open the Builder Call Editor model view, and click Generate XML at the bottom.
D. Open the Model XML model view, then click the builder call in the builder call list.
Answer: D

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NO.1 How can IBM Solutions for Smart Business be deployed?
A. In Unix or Linux operating environments.
B. On all IBM or any non-IBM hardware.
C. On selected IBM and third Party vendor platforms.
D. In Microsoft Windows Server operating environments.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Is it true or false that individual solutions for Smart Business are generally ordered via
single part
number, and are installed as a single software package?
A. True. Solutions for Smart Business are completely integrated in one package to allow
ease of ordering.
B. False. Solutions for Smart Business require separate part numbers for the solution and
Foundation for
Smart Business.
C. True. A single part number can be used except for situations where the customer would
like to
exchange parts of the solution for other components.
D. False. Solutions for Smart Business can be ordered as a hardware appliance
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the value proposition for Business Partners selling Solutions for Smart
Business.?
A. Shorter sales cycles with minimal time and investment required - solution sales are
repeatable and
require limited customization.
B. Priced right for midsize customers.
C. Offer more pricing flexibility and generate annuity streams from customers who want to
utilize usage
based pricing.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 Solution Development
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NO.1 Which options are true regarding the Portlet State Manager Service? (Choose two.)
A. It is obtainable by using a JNDI lookup.
B. It changes the state of the server when called.
C. It is not a valid IBM WebSphere Portal Service.
D. It supports portlets that are compliant with JSR 168 and JSR 286.
E. It is obtainable by using the <portlet: state_manage r_se rvice> tag.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Tyler is developing a portlet that allows a user to see all the pages that the user can access in
the portal. Which portal model should Tyler use to get the pages that are visible to the specific user
who is logged in?
A. Layout model
B. Content model
C. Navigation model
D. Navigation Selection model
Answer: C

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NO.3 Rachel has added a custom new parameter named user to the page properties of the Human
Resources page.
How can Rachel retrieve this parameter?
A. She is unable to access the user parameter.
B. She can use the <portal-logic:pageMetaData> tag to obtain the user parameter from any page.
C. She can use the <portal-logic:pageMetaData> tag to obtain the user parameter from the Human
Resources page.
D. She can use the <portlet-logic:pageMetaData> tag to obtain the user parameter from the Human
Resources page.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Jack wants to allow users to bookmark his portal page. He is using the following code:
<portal-navigation:urlGeneration>
<a href="<% wpsURL.write(out); %>"> My Page
</a> </portal-navigation:urlGeneration>
What change must he make to this code to allow users to bookmark the page?
A. The code is correct and will allow the users to bookmark the page.
B. He must include the normalize="true" attribute to indicate that the URL to be generated should be
normalized.
C. He must include the forceAbsolute="true" attribute to indicate that the URL to be generated
should be absolute.
D. He must include the keepNavigationalState="true" attribute to indicate that the URL to be
generated should keep the current navigational state, which will include all portlet modes, states,
and render parameters in the URL.
Answer: D

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NO.5 John, an IBM WebSphere Portal developer, is writing a portlet to help support specialists with
reproducing users' issues.
Which WebSphere Portal feature can John use to run his task?
A. Personalization
B. People Awareness
C. User Impersonation
D. User and Groups Management
Answer: C

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While impersonating the user use the "My Sites" menu in the dockbar to go to any of his sites Result:
The impersonation is lost, the site is accessed as the administrator user

NO.6 Sally developed a custom theme module that requires Dojo to render it. In the custom module
definition,
she added the Dojo modules to the prerequisite list. Sally then added her custom module to the non-
deferred section of the
Deferred (Default) profile, leaving the Dojo modules in the deferred section.
What is the result of rendering a page in view mode with the Deferred (Default) profile assigned?
A. The custom module is not run.
B. The Dojo modules are promoted to non-deferred.
C. A JavaScript error occurs, indicating that Dojo is undefined.
D. A server-side error occurs, indicating that the Dojo modules are deferred.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Kaveri needs to develop a portletthat uses Ajax Proxy to get the news feed from the URL
http:/Avww.ibm.com/developerworks/news/dw_dwtp.rss. The following configuration information is
present in the proxy-config.xml:
<mapping contextpath="/devworks" url="http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/"/>
Which is the correct URL to use in the Ajax call?
A. http://myportal.com:10040/wps/devworks/news/dw_dwtp.rss
B. http://myportaLcom:10040Avps/proxy/devworks/news/dw_dwtp.rss
C.http://myportal.com:10040/wps/proxy/http/www.ibmxom/developerworks/news/dw_dwtp.rss
D.http://myportaLcom:10040/wps/devworks/http/www.ibm.com/developerworks/news/dw_dwt
p.rss
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security
Server and a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 AVM failure occurs in a vSphere HA cluster, but the virtual machine is not restarted. No error
messages are given.
Which two conditions explain this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. Monitoring sensitivity was set to Low.
B. Application Monitoring Only was selected.
C. The virtual machines has failed three times.
D. The HA cluster was set up with all defaults.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which two options would reduce the load on the VMkernel when connecting to an iSCSI
array? (Choose two.)
A. Use an independent hardware iSCSI adapter
B. Use a Converged Network Adapter
C. Enable the software iSCSI adapter
D. Use a dependent hardware iSCSI adapter
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 A ThinApp administrator needs to capture an application that leverages ODBC connections.
Which step should the administrator take during the ThinApp capture and build process to enable
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A. configure the ODBC connections before starting the capture process
B. configure the ODBC connections during the capture process
C. configure the ODBC connections as an upgrade patch to a completed ThinApp application
D. configure the ODBC connections outside the capture process on the client workstations
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the name of the group policy setting that must be configured to enable location based
printing?
A. AutoConnect Map Additional Printers for VMware View
B. Automated Printing Settings for VMware View
C. Server Based Printing for VMware View
D. Thinprint Location Based Printing for VMware View
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator has View installed in a LAN environment with tunneling disabled. When users
connect from the View Client on a Windows 7 laptop, they can authenticate and select a pool, but
receive a black screen when connecting with PCoIP. After 10 seconds,
their session automatically disconnects. RDP users are not affected.
What port is likely being blocked by a firewall to cause this issue?
A. Port 50002/UDP
B. Port 4172/UDP
C. Port 3389/TCP
D. Port 443/TCP
Answer: B

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NO.7 An Administrator is upgrading to View Connection Server 5.x from a previous release.
Which component is omitted from installation automatically during an upgrade?
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which functions can be performed with the Plug-in Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Enable an installed plug-in
B. Remove permissions for a plug-in
C. View the status of installed plug-ins
D. Uninstall a plug-in
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 Your New GL customer uses real-time reconciliation of CO and FI. The customer wants to show
the value flow of activity allocations between cost centers assigned to different profit centers. What
does the customer have to configure?(Choose two)
A. Execute the periodic transfer to profit center accounting.
B. Define a G/L reconciliation account for direct activity allocation.
C. Select profit center as a characteristic for real time reconciliation between CO and FI.
D. Carry out a reconciliation run for activities types in the new GL.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A customer needs an error message to be displayed when the internal order budget has been
exceeded by 15%. How can the customer achieve this?(Choose two)
A. By entering the budget profile in the order type.
B. By customizing the tolerance limits for the budget profile.
C. By activating availability control in the controlling area.
D. By entering the budget profile in the order master data.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What is the SAP Solution Manager?
A. It is an own related database system that can be used as an alternative to databases from other
vendors.
B. It supports throughout the entire life-cycle, from the Business Blueprint to the configuration to
production processing.
C. It is an application that is part of the SAP Supply Chain Management application.
D. It is a robust and lean standard-based platform that enables you to develop Java and composite
applications from scratch and on top of existing services.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the advantage of using a key figure scheme in drilldown reports in profitability analysis?
A. The key figure scheme allows the calculating of lines with subtotals in a drill down report.
B. A key figure scheme allows for simultaneous access to different databases.
C. The key figure scheme allows quick access to predefined key figures in the database.
D. A key figure scheme improves the runtime of the drilldown report.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company in a high-inflation country wants to valuate their finished products with actual costs
reflecting all the latest price variances. Which method do you recommend?
A. Use actual price determination in the material ledger
B. Use lowest-value determination of raw materials.
C. Activate FIFO valuation in the special ledger
D. Valuate all materials with LIFO valuation.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer uses assessment cycles in cost center accounting. How can the customer see the
results on the profit centers in New GL?
A. By activating plan integration for profit centers.
B. By activating the real-time reconciliation between CO and FI.
C. By activating document split for cost centers in New GL.
D. By defining and execute the equivalent cycles in the New GL.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your customer wants to see a P&L statement for profit centers by the cost-of-salesaccounting
approach. Which of the following is the minimum requirement?
A. Activate profitability analysis.
B. Create a derivation rule for the functional area.
C. Activate the scenario functional area in New GL.
D. Enter the functional area in the profit center master.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company wants to use Profitability Analysis (CO-PA) to obtain an early analysis of their
anticipated profits.
Which functionality provides the best results?
A. Transfer the plan balance data from Fl to account-based CO-PA and use record type "F" for
analysis.
B. Analyze sales quotation as a detail value.
C. Transfer the plan data from the "Sales and operation planning" to costing-based CO-PA and use
record type "P" for analysis.
D. Transfer sales orders and quotations from SD to costing-based CO-PA and use record type "A" for
analysis.
E. Transfer sales orders and quotations from SD to account-based CO-PA and use record type "F" for
analysis.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2210-421
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 System Administration Core A
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Exam Code: M2020-733
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NO.1 What happens when a user ID and password is assigned to a RunAs role?
A. Validation occurs without using any users.
B. Validation occurs using the current active user registry that is configured.
C. Validation occurs using the future active user registry that will be configured.
D. Validation occurs using the previous active user registry that was configured.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSEQTP_8.5.5/com.ibm.websphere.ba
se.iseries.do c/ae/tsec_taurunas.html(See Assigning Users to RunAs roles after Point 1stPara).

NO.2 Sarah migrated her IBM WebSphere Portal environment. She notices that some IBM portlets
are missing from the pages they used to be on.
Why would these portlets be missing?
A. These portlets are hidden as they are deprecated.
B. Some portlets are not migrated as they are no longer included.
C. There was an error during migration, and the portlets were skipped.
D. The portlets must be updated to the right JDK before they are visible.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The command to change the Portal Admin User ID must be run from which directory?
A. wp_profile_root
B. wp_profile_root/bin
C. wp_profile_root/ConfigEngine
D. wp_profile_root/configuration
Answer: C

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NO.4 Lionel administers an IBM WebSphere Portal environment with three active virtual portals: VP1,
VP2 and VP3. All virtual portals are using the same realm. Consider the scenario in which page P1 is
defined in VP1 and is set for viewing by the All Authenticated Users group.
Which statement is valid for this environment?
A. Only users authenticated with VP1 have access to page P1.
B. Users that have authenticated with VP2 or VP3 but not VP1 can see page P1.
C. Users that authenticated with VP1 and then with VP2 must re-authenticate with VP1 before
accessing page P1.
D. Users that have authenticated with VP2 or VP3 but not VP1 must authenticate with VP1 before
accessing page P1.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are passive credentials for the credential vault?
A. a partition of a vault
B. a way to allow a portlet to extract the credential's secret
C. a way to prevent a portlet from extracting the credential's secret
D. a part of a vault segment that is represented with the CredentialSlotConfig class
Answer: B

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NO.6 The LDAP administrator tells Erin that her application is creating new users in the wrong node
of the directory information tree. The administrators of Erin's application use the default Manage
Users and Groups administrative portletto create new users.
What should Erin do to correct this problem?
A. Change the participating base entry for this LDAP.
B. Update the default parent of the PersonAccount entity type.
C. Edit the shared settings for the Manage Users and Groups portlet to specify the correct location
where new users should be created.
D. Implement a custom user management portlet and specify the correct location for new users in
the parent DN argument for the PUMA API call that creates new users.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Mark must configure the portal to use IBM Tivoli Access Manager in a clustered environment
Which is the first command to be run, and where?
A. validate-pdadmin-connection task on primary node
B. validate-pdadmin-connection task on Deployment manager
C. validate-pdadmin-credential task on each node in the cluster
D. validate-pdadmin-connection task on each node in the cluster
Answer: B

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NO.8 Christiano is using the Web Application Bridge to integrate his IBM WebSphere Portal
installation with an external web content provider.
Which portlet must he use on a page that will show the remote content?
A. Web Dock
B. Web Clipping
C. Unified Task List
D. Web Content Viewer
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-376
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, Solution Design
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Exam Code: C2210-420
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 System Administration Update
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Test information:

• Number of questions: 49
• Time allowed in minutes: 90
• Required passing score: 57%
• Test languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:

• IBM Certified Solution Designer - WebSphere MQ V7.0

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Exam Name: System Consultant, Genesys SIP SERVER (GCP8 - SIP)
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NO.1 For most deployments with VCS configured in Behind-the-Switch mode using Genesys Framework,
DNIS is obtained through what mechanism?
A. VCS request to the T-Server via IVR Server
B. VCS requests to the Dialogic telephony board
C. a route point corresponding to the appropriate strategy
D. VCS request directly to the ACD/PBX
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes __________ calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM
D. EMPS
Answer: A

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NO.3 When you make a change to a parameter, such as PopGateway, Route1, Route Type - from InBound
to OutBound, what needs to happen for this change to go into effect?
A. restart WatchDog
B. no need to restart anything. New parameter value goes into effect immediately
C. restart the EMPS
D. restart MRCP Server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B

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NO.7 In an In-Front of the Switch configuration using Genesys Framework, __________.
A. the VCS receives all call routing information from the strategy
B. the DNIS must be delivered to the VCS with the call
C. a connection with the IVR Server is required
D. ANI is required to initiate or begin the call.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
Answer: C

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CompTIA IT Fundamentals Certification Exam Objectives (FC0-U51)

Domain % of Examination1.0 Software 21%
2.0 Hardware 18%
3.0 Security 21%
4.0 Networking 16%
5.0 Basic IT literacy 24%

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Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
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CompTIA Network+
Exam Code N10-006 JK0-023 (for CompTIA Academy Partners only)
Network+ is an ISO-17024 compliant, vendor-neutral technology certification that verifies the certified individual has the skills and knowledge needed to take on a pivotal role in building, managing, and protecting the critical asset that is the data network.

Number of Questions:Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions:Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test:90 Minutes
Passing Score :720 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience :CompTIA A+ Certification(9) months of networking experience
Languages:English at launch (2/28/15) Japanese and German - in development
Retirement :TBD - Usually three years after launch

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Exam Code: N10-006
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CV0-001 Exam Dumps, SK0-003 Real Questions, TK0-201 Actual Test

CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives
Exam Number: CV0-001
INTRODUCTION
The CompTIA Cloud+ certification is an internationally recognized validation of the knowledge required of IT practitioners working in cloud computing environments.
Test Purpose: This exam will certify that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to understand standard Cloud terminologies/methodologies, to implement, maintain, and deliver cloud technologies and infrastructures (e.g. server, network, storage, and virtualization technologies), and to understand aspects of IT security and use of industry best practices related to cloud implementations and the application of virtualization.

Domain % of Examination
1.0 Cloud Concepts and Models 12%
2.0 Virtualization 19%
3.0 Infrastructure 21%
4.0 Resource Management 13%
5.0 Security 16%
6.0 Systems Management 11%
7.0 Business Continuity in the Cloud 8%

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