2015年10月29日星期四

VCPN610 latest VMware certification exam questions and answers published

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Exam Code: VCPN610
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Last Update: 10-29,2015
 
NO.1 Which two statements are valid regarding vCloud Networking and Security (vCNS) and NSX?
(Choose two.)
A. Both vCNS and NSX support multiple hypervisor environments.
B. NSX provides support for multiple hypervisor environments, vCNS does not.
C. Both vCNS and NSX support dynamic routing protocols.
D. NSX supports dynamic routing protocols, vCNS does not.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which Endpoint service cannot be leveraged using Service Composer?
A. Antivirus
B. Data Security
C. Layer 2 Bridging
D. Network Introspection
Answer: C

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NO.3 A new ESXi 5.5 host is deployed in a vSphere environment with VMware NSX for vSphere. How
can the host be prepared for VMware NSX for vSphere?
A. By using Image Builder to pre-load the NSX for vSphere VIBs in the ESXi image in an Auto Deploy
solution.
B. By leveraging VMware Update Manager to install the new NSX for vSphere VIBs into each of the
hosts.
C. By creating a new VMkernel port in the host from the Host and Clusters inventory view in vSphere
Web Client.
D. By entering the ESXi 5.5 management IP address in the NSX Controllers so the VIBs can be
installed.
Answer: A

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NO.4 -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
An NSX administrator has deployed the network shown in the diagram:
Based on the diagram, which statement describes a valid method for redirecting traffic around the
fault?
A. Building this topology using a layer 2 switched fabric with connectivity between the leafs would
allow traffic to be redirected around the fault to another leaf.
B. Building this topology using a layer 3 routed fabric with connectivity between the leafs would allow
traffic to be redirected around the fault to another leaf.
C. Building this topology using a layer 2 switched fabric with spanning tree will provide the quickest
path around the fault to another spine when connectivity is lost.
D. Building this topology using a layer 3 routed fabric will provide the quickest path around the fault
to another spine when connectivity is lost.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which component automates the consumption of third-party services and provides mapping
to virtual machines using a logical policy?
A. NSX Manager
B. Cloud Management Platform (CMP)
C. Service Composer
D. NSX Data Security
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which NSX component provides the ability to provide East-West distributed routing for virtual
machines in different subnets without having to traverse the physical network?
A. NSX vSwitch
B. NSX Edge
C. NSX Controller
D. NSX Distributed Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two vSphere components are required for NSX? (Choose two.)
A. Standard vSwitch
B. Network I/O Control
C. Distributed Port Group
D. VMkernel port
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding an NSX Edge gateway device configured with a DNS Server?
A. The NSX Edge will forward all DNS requests from virtual machines sent to it to the DNS Server.
B. The NSX Edge configuration will override the DNS Server configured by the NSX Manager.
C. The NSX Edge registers the DNS Server with the NSX Controller.
D. The NSX Edge periodically synchronizes its DNS tables with the primary DNS Server.
Answer: A

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IBM certification C4090-461 exam training programs

IBM certification C4090-461 exams has a pivotal position in the IT industry, and I believe that a lot of IT professionals agree with it. Passing IBM certification C4090-461 exam has much difficulty and needs to have perfect IT knowledge and experience. Because after all, IBM certification C4090-461 exam is an authoritative test to inspect examinees' IT professional knowledge. If you have got a IBM C4090-461 certification, your IT professional ability will be approved by a lot of IT company. IT-Tests.com also has a pivotal position in IT training industry. Many IT personnels who have passed IBM certification C4090-461 exam used IT-Tests's help to pass the exam. This explains why IT-Tests's pertinence training program is very effective. If you use the training material we provide, you can 100% pass the exam.
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Exam Code: C4090-461
Exam Name: IBM Midrange Storage Technical Support V4
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Last Update: 10-29,2015
 
NO.1 A customer has a business requirement to replicate data between two sites and achieve a
recovery point objective (RPO) as low as possible with the replicated data as up-to-date as possible.
The existing inter-site link is a shared resource and can become congested.
Which replication technology should be suggested to the customer?
A. Global Mirror with change volume
B. Intracluster mirroring
C. Active Cloud Engine
D. Metro Mirror
Answer: A

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NO.2 A client would like to store large video files on CIFS/NFS network shares and needs to make sure
that the data, once its stored, can't be changed or manipulated.
Which benefit would an IBM Spectrum Archive solution with LTO-6 drives deliver over a common SAS
disk solution?
A. No extra software license cost
B. Availability of WORM media
C. Quicker access to video archive
D. Global namespace with IBM Spectrum Scale
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has a TS3310 Tape library installed in its data center, which consists of a base unit
with 2 x LTO-6 tape drives and a single expansion module with an additional 2 x LTO-6 drives
installed. The TS3310 tape library has 81 storage slots licensed.
The growth in business requires that the tape library has an additional explanation module installed,
and the new solution to be fully configured with LTO-6 drives and all tape storage slots licensed.
Additionally, there is a requirement to encrypt the data backed up to tape.
Which recommendation for the number of LTO-6 drives, storage slot licensing, and any additional
items is required to provide the desired solution?
A. 6 x LTO-6 Tape Drives, 2 x Storage Slot Expansion License, 2 x Encryption License
B. 6 x LTO-6 Tape Drives, 2 x Storage Slot Expansion License, 1 x Encryption License
C. 4 x LTO-6 Tape Drives, 4 x Storage Slot Expansion License, 8 x Encryption License
D. 4 x LTO-6 Tape Drives, 3 x Storage Slot Expansion License, 3 x Encryption License
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which technology allows a user to save a file directly to tape within the operating
systemwithout the need for any special backup application?
A. IBM Spectrum Protect
B. IBM Spectrum Archive
C. IBM Tape System Library Manager
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer provides the information shown in the exhibit for the company's primary database
environment. The customer believes that using Tier 0 (i.e. Flash or SSD) storage for database log
volumes ("_log" volumes) will improve performance.
What is the minimum amount of Tier 0 storage needed to meet the customer requirement?
A. 124.0 GB
B. 238.0 GB
C. 204.0 GB
D. 620.4 GB
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has a requirement for 4 TB of usable storage capacity for an active workload with
SAS host connectivity.
Which IBM storage product fulfills the customer requirement?
A. DCS3700
B. IBM Flash Storage 840
C. IBM Storwize V5000
D. IBM Storwize V7000
Answer: B

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210-065 Real Questions, 400-051 Practice Exam

In the such a brilliant era of IT industry in the 21st century competition is very fierce. Naturally, Cisco certification 210-065 exam has become a very popular exam in the IT area. More and more people register for the exam and passing the certification exam is also those ambitious IT professionals' dream.
400-051 is an Cisco certification exam, so 400-051 is the first step to set foot on the road of Cisco certification. 400-051 certification exam become more and more fiery and more and more people participate in 400-051 exam, but passing rate of 400-051 certification exam is not very high.When you select 400-051 exam, do you want to choose an exam training courses?
Exam Code: 210-065
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
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NO.1 Which statement describes the Maximum Serving Count service parameter of the Cisco TFTP
service on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. It specifies the maximum number of files in the TFTP server disk storage.
B. It specifies the maximum number of TFTP client requests to accept and to serve files at a given
time.
C. It specifies the maximum file support by the Cisco TFTP service.
D. It specifies the maximum file counts, in cache as well as in disk, that are supported by the Cisco
TFTP service.
E. It specifies the maximum number of TFTP client requests to accept and to serve files in a
120minute window.
Answer: B

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This parameter specifies the maximum number of client requests to accept and to serve files at a
time. Specify a low value if you are serving files over a low bandwidth connection. You can set it to a
higher number if you are serving small files over a large bandwidth connection and when CPU
resources are available, such as when no other services run on the TFTP server. Use the default value
if the TFTP service is run along with other Cisco CallManager services on the same server. Use the
following suggested values for a dedicated TFTP server: 1500 for a single-processor system and 3000
for a dual-processor system. If the dual-processor system is running Windows 2000 Advanced Server,
the serving count can be up to 5000. This is a required field.

NO.2 Which two statements describe security services that are provided by the Phone Proxy function
on a Cisco ASA appliance? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported only on phones that use SCCP.
B. It is supported on an adaptive security appliance that runs in transparent mode.
C. It provides interworking to ensure that the external IP phone traffic is encrypted, as long as the
Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster runs in secure mode.
D. It provides a proxy of phone signaling, with optional use of NAT, to hide the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address from the public Internet.
E. It proxies phone media so that internal phones are not directly exposed to the Internet.
F. It supports IP phones that send phone proxy traffic through a VPN tunnel.
Answer: D,E

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Explanation:
TLS Proxy is typically deployed in front of Cisco Unified Communications Manager and other unified
communications application servers that utilize media encryption. TLS Proxy is not designed to
provide remote-access encryption services for remote phones or client endpoints. Other solutions
such as Cisco ASA Phone Proxy or IP Security/Secure Sockets Layer (IPsec/SSL) VPN services are more
appropriate. TLS Proxy is not designed to provide a secure campus soft phone solution where the
requirement is to provide secure data to phone VLAN traversal or for proxying connections to Cisco
Unified Communications Manager.

NO.3 What is the minimum number of H.225 messages required to establish an H.323 call with
bidirectional media?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A typical H.245 exchange looks similar to below figure After this exchange of messages, the two
endpoints (EP) in this figure would be transmitting audio in each direction. The number of message
exchanges is numerous, each has an important purpose, but nonetheless takes time. For this reason,
H.323 version 2 (published in 1998) introduced a concept called Fast Connect, which enables a device
to establish bi-directional media flows as part of the H.225.0 call establishment procedures. With Fast
Connect, it is possible to establish a call with bi-directional media flowing with no more than two
messages, like in figure 3. Fast Connect is widely supported in the industry. Even so, most devices still
implement the complete H.245 exchange as shown above and perform that message exchange in
parallel to other activities, so there is no noticeable delay to the calling or called party.

NO.4 Which two rules apply to MMOH in SRST? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of three MOH groups are allowed.
B. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on
the basis of their IP address to receive different MOH media streams.
C. A maximum of five media streams are allowed.
D. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on
the basis of their MAC address to receive different MOH media streams.
E. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the
basis of their extension numbers to receive different MOH media streams.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 Which three Cisco Unity Connection call handler greetings can be overridden by the internal
greeting? (Choose three.)
A. holiday
B. alternate
C. error
D. busy
E. closed
F. standard
Answer: A,E,F

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This greeting overrides the Standard, Closed, and Holiday greetings but only for internal callers or
users defined in Cisco Unity Connection because the mentioned three greetings are defined for
externals users.

NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
How many SIP signaling dialog(s) took place in this SIP message exchange between two SIP user
agents?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Answer: A

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Explanation:
During the establishment, maintenance and termination of a SIP session, signaling messages are
exchanged between the two SIP endpoints. There are two different kinds of signaling "conversations"
that those messages take part in: transactions and dialogs. A transaction is a SIP message exchange
between two user-agents that starts with a request and ends with its final response (it can also
contain zero or more provisional responses in between). For example, during the termination of a SIP
session, one user releases the call by sending a BYE request and the other party replies back with a
200 OK response. This message exchange is called a transaction. But what happens in the case of the
INVITE request? The establishment of a SIP session starts basically with an INVITE request and is
considered as completed upon the receipt of the ACK. In this case, the transaction starts with the
INVITE request and ends with the 200 OK, so the ACK is not part of the transaction. The ACK can be
considered as a transaction on its own. However, when the final response to an INVITE is not a 2xx
response, then the ACK is considered as part of the transaction. A dialog is a complete exchange of
SIP messages between two user-agents. That means that transactions are actually parts of a dialog.
For example, in the case of a SIP session establishment, a dialog starts with the INVITE-200 OK
transaction, continues with the ACK and ends with the BYE-200 OK transaction. The picture below
depicts the dialog and transactions that take place during the establishment of a SIP session: Note:
There can also be subsequent requests that belong to the same dialog, such as a BYE or a re-INVITE
message. As out-of-dialog requests are considered messages such as an initial INVITE request for a
new session or an OPTIONS message for checking capabilities. There are different SIP
headers/parameters that identify the dialogs and transactions, and they will be analyzed in later
posts.
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Reference: https://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/13/sip-transactions-vs-dialogs/

NO.7 On a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with a single remote device and
OPTIONS ping feature enabled, which response from the SIP remote peer causes the trunk to be
marked as "Out of Service"?
A. 401 Unauthorized
B. 505 Version Not Supported
C. 406 Not Acceptable
D. 408 Request Timeout
E. 500 Server Internal Error
Answer: D

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408 Request Timeout
Couldn't find the user in time. The server could not produce a response within a suitable amount of
time, for example, if it could not determine the location of the user in time. The client MAY repeat
the request without modifications at any later time
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_SIP_response_codes

NO.8 Which two steps must be taken when configuring EMCC? (Choose two.)
A. An SFTP server that all clusters share must be set up.
B. Certificates from all remote clusters must be imported into each cluster.
C. Cross-cluster Enhanced Location CAC must be configured.
D. End users must be configured to only exist in their home cluster.
E. A device pool for EMCC phones must be configured.
F. Define MLPP domains.
Answer: A,B

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CCIE Collaboration
Exam Number:400-051 CCIE Collaboration
Associated Certifications:CCIE Collaboration
Duration:120 minutes (90 - 110 questions)
Available Languages:English
Description
This exam validates that candidates have the skills to plan, design, implement, operate, and troubleshoot enterprise collaboration and communication networks.
Review the exam topics
Recommended Training
Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you
Additional Resources
A variety of Cisco Press titles may be available for this exam. These titles can be purchased through the Cisco Marketplace Bookstore, directly from Cisco Press.


2015年10月23日星期五

CompTIA SY0-401 PDF

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The CompTIA Security+ Certification is aimed at an IT security professional who has:
> A minimum of 2 years experience in IT administration with a focus on security
> Day to day technical information security experience
> Broad knowledge of security concerns and implementation including the topics in the domain list below

SY0-401 Domain | % of Examination
1.0 Network Security 20%
2.0 Compliance and Operational Security 18%
3.0 Threats and Vulnerabilities 20%
4.0 Application, Data and Host Security 15%
5.0 Access Control and Identity Management 15%
6.0 Cryptography 12%
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NO.1 A security technician wishes to gather and analyze all Web traffic during a particular time
period.
Which of the following represents the BEST approach to gathering the required data?
A. Configure a VPN concentrator to log all traffic destined for ports 80 and 443.
B. Configure a proxy server to log all traffic destined for ports 80 and 443.
C. Configure a switch to log all traffic destined for ports 80 and 443.
D. Configure a NIDS to log all traffic destined for ports 80 and 443.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A proxy server is in essence a device that acts on behalf of others and in security terms all internal
user interaction with the Internet should be controlled through a proxy server. This makes a proxy
server the best tool to gather the required data.

NO.2 Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask
255.255.255.224? (Select TWO).
A. 10.4.4.125
B. 10.4.4.158
C. 10.4.4.165
D. 10.4.4.189
E. 10.4.4.199
Answer: C,D

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Explanation:
With the given subnet mask, a maximum number of 30 hosts between IP addresses 10.4.4.161 and
10.4.4.190 are allowed. Therefore, option C and D would be hosts on the same subnet, and the other
options would not.
References: http://www.subnetonline.com/pages/subnet-calculators/ip-subnet-calculator.php

NO.3 Pete, a security auditor, has detected clear text passwords between the RADIUS server and the
authenticator. Which of the following is configured in the RADIUS server and what technologies
should the authentication protocol be changed to?
A. PAP, MSCHAPv2
B. CHAP, PAP
C. MSCHAPv2, NTLMv2
D. NTLM, NTLMv2
Answer: A

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Explanation:
PAP transmits the username and password to the authentication server in plain text. MSCHAPv2 is
utilized as an authentication option for RADIUS servers that are used for Wi-Fi security using the
WPA-Enterprise protocol.

NO.4 After a recent internal audit, the security administrator was tasked to ensure that all
credentials must be changed within 90 days, cannot be repeated, and cannot contain any dictionary
words or patterns. All credentials will remain enabled regardless of the number of attempts made.
Which of the following types of user account options were enforced? (Select TWO).
A. Recovery
B. User assigned privileges
C. Lockout
D. Disablement
E. Group based privileges
F. Password expiration
G. Password complexity
Answer: F,G

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Explanation:
Password complexity often requires the use of a minimum of three out of four standard character
types for a password. The more characters in a password that includes some character type
complexity, the more resistant it is to password-cracking techniques. In most cases, passwords are
set to expire every 90 days.

NO.5 Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers?
A. deny udp any any port 53
B. deny ip any any
C. deny tcp any any port 53
D. deny all dns packets
Answer: C

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Explanation:
DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.

NO.6 Which of the following is best practice to put at the end of an ACL?
A. Implicit deny
B. Time of day restrictions
C. Implicit allow
D. SNMP string
Answer: A

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Explanation:
An implicit deny clause is implied at the end of each ACL. This implies that if you aren't specifically
granted access or privileges for a resource, you're denied access by default. The implicit deny clause
is set by the system.

NO.7 A network inventory discovery application requires non-privileged access to all hosts on a
network for inventory of installed applications. A service account is created by the network inventory
discovery application for accessing all hosts. Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for
granting the account non-privileged access to the hosts?
A. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the users group on the hosts
B. Add the account to the Domain Administrator group
C. Add the account to the Users group on the hosts
D. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the Power Users group on the hosts.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Group Policy is an infrastructure that allows you to implement specific configurations for users and
computers. Group Policy settings are contained in Group Policy objects (GPOs), which are linked to
the following Active Directory directory service containers: sites, domains, or organizational units
(OUs). This means that if the GPO is linked to the domain, all Users groups in the domain will include
the service account.

NO.8 RADIUS provides which of the following?
A. Authentication, Authorization, Availability
B. Authentication, Authorization, Auditing
C. Authentication, Accounting, Auditing
D. Authentication, Authorization, Accounting
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) networking protocol offers centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who make use of a
network service. It is for this reason that A, B, and C: are incorrect.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/RADIUS

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NO.1 A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and
authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be
used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Answer: D

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP client is unable to receive a DHCP address from the DHCP
server. Consider the following output:
hostname RouterB ! interface fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.0 interface serial 0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
! ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
Which configuration is required on the Router B fastethernet 0/0 port in order to allow the DHCP
client to successfully receive an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.2
B. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.16.1.1
C. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 172.31.1.1
D. RouterB(config-if)# ip helper-address 255.255.255.255
Answer: A

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NO.3 A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP,
even if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?
A. TCP Adjust
B. Dialer Persistent
C. PPPoE Groups
D. half-bridging
E. Peer Neighbor Route
Answer: B

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NO.4 PPPoE is composed of which two phases?
A. Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase
B. Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
C. Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase
D. Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement about dual stack is true?
A. Dual stack translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
B. Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel.
C. Dual stack translates IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.
D. Dual stack changes the IP addresses on hosts from IPv4 to IPv6 automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which type of BGP AS number is 64591?
A. a private AS number
B. a public AS number
C. a private 4-byte AS number
D. a public 4-byte AS number
Answer: A

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NO.7 A network engineer executes the "ipv6 flowset" command. What is the result?
A. Flow-label marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
B. Flow-set marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
C. IPv6 PMTU is enabled on the router.
D. IPv6 flow control is enabled on the router.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A network engineer is trying to modify an existing active NAT configuration on an IOS router by
using the following command:
(config)# no ip nat pool dynamic-nat-pool 192.1.1.20 192.1.1.254 netmask 255.255.255.0
Upon entering the command on the IOS router, the following message is seen on the console:
%Dynamic Mapping in Use, Cannot remove message or the %Pool outpool in use, cannot destroy
What is the least impactful method that the engineer can use to modify the existing IP NAT
configuration?
A. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat traffic * " command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to
active NAT traffic.
B. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat translation * " command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to
active NAT traffic.
C. Clear the IP NAT translations using the reload command on the router, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to
active NAT traffic.
D. Clear the IP NAT translations using the clear ip nat table * " command, then replace the NAT
configuration quickly, before any new NAT entries are populated into the translation table due to
active NAT traffic.
Answer: B

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2015年7月28日星期二

F5 301 exam study materials

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NO.1 Which statement is true concerning SNATs using SNAT pools and SNATs using automap?
A. SNAT s using automap preferentially translate source addresses to non-floating self-IP addresses.
B. SNAT s using a SNAT pool translate source addresses randomly to any of the addresses in the
SNAT pool.
C. SNAT s using automap translate source addresses randomly to any of the BIG-IP's floating self-IP
addresses.
D. A .SNAT pool can contain virtual server addresses.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which action CANNOT be performed by an iRule?
A. Direct a connection request to a specific pool.
B. Substitute a server's response with alternate data.
C. Chang the virtual server's default pool.
D. Direct a client's request to a pool based on the client's browser's language.
E. Limit a given client to a set amount of bandwidth.
F. Discard a client before connecting to a server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which are immediate results of entering the following command: b pool PoolA . { lb method
predictive member 10.10.1 .1:80 member 10.10.1.2:80 }
A. Requests sent to this BIG-IP system with a destination port of 80 are load- balanced between the
members of PoolA.
B. No changes will take place since the command is missing the monitor component for PoolA.
C. The /config/bigip.cinf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named PoolA.
D. a new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which persistence method will always recognize a client when the client returns to the same
virtual server?
A. SSL
B. MSRDP
C. expression [universal]
D. No persistence method work in all situations.
E. source address
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement is true concerning iRule context?
A. The iRule event declaration determines the context.
B. the context must be explicitly declared.
C. The rule command determines the context.
D. The results of the iRule's conditional statement determines the context.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a pool is created and saved to file, where is the default file and location for the pool
configuration?
A. /config/bigip_base.conf
B. lconfig/bigip.conf
C. /etc/bigip_base.conf
D. /config/BigDB.dat
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A. In addition to administrator-created filters, three always exists a "deny all" filter that processes
traffic last.
B. Filters cannot prevent access to the management port.
C. The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied
D. Filters cannot prevent the BIG_IP synching process from taking place.
Answer: B

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2015年7月27日星期一

Microsoft certification 70-346 best exam questions and answers

NO.1 Your company has an Office 365 subscription. The network contains an Active Directory
domain. You configure single sign-on for all users.
You need to verify that single sign-on functions for the users who access Office 365 from the Internet.
What should you run?
A. the Get-MSOLFederationProperty cmdlet
B. the Test-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet
C. the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
D. the Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You assign the roles to users as shown in the following
table:
User3 must be able to monitor the health of the Exchange Online service. You must use the principle
of least privilege to assign permissions to User3.
You need to assign permissions to User3.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign User3 the service administrator role in Office 365.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as User1.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as User2.
D. Grant User3 administrative permissions in Exchange Online.
E. Assign User3 the global administrator role in Office 365.
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
Only the global administrator can delegate service administrator role.
http://onlinehelp.microsoft.com/en-in/office365-enterprises/ff637584.asp

NO.3 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You configure new user accounts
for User1 and User2. User1 has an on-premises mailbox. User2 has an Office 365 mailbox.
Each user must be able to view the availability of the other user.
You need to ascertain whether users can share their free/busy information.
What should you use?
A. Transport Reliability IP Probe (TRIPP Tool)
B. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer Tool
C. Business Connectivity Services
D. Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management
Answer: B

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NO.4 Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with
Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register-
AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor
Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.5 An organization implements single sign-on (5SO) for use with Office 365 services. You install an
Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server.
Users report that they are unable to authenticate. You launch the Event Viewer and view the event
information shown in the following screen shot:
You need to ensure that users can authenticate to Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Re-enter the credentials used to establish the trust.
B. Verify the federation server proxy is trusted by the federation service.
C. Re-install the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate for the federation service.
D. Verify network connectivity between the Federation Service Proxy and federation server.
Answer: A


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NO.6 You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user account
information.
You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis.
Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365.
You must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account data from
the file.
Answer: B

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NO.7 HOTSPOT
The legal department in your organization creates standardized disclaimers for all of their email
messages. The disclaimers explain that any transmissions that are received in error should be
reported back to the sender. You track any confidential documents that are attached to email
messages.
Your security team reports that an employee may have mistakenly sent an email message that
contained confidential information.
You need to identify whether the email message included the disclaimer and whether it contained
confidential information.
Which two options should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate objects in the answer
area.
Answer:

NO.8 Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You need to add the label "External" to the
subject line of each email message received by your organization from an external sender.
What should you do?
A. From the Exchange Control Panel, add a MailTip.
B. From the Forefront Online Protection Administration Center, set the footer for outbound email.
C. Run the Enable-InboxRule cmdlet.
D. From the Exchange Control Panel, run the New Rule wizard.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Option B also will do if that mention "Inbound email". But here it says outbound email, so D is the
current answer.

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2015年7月24日星期五

Microsoft certification 70-489 exam targeted exercises

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
You create a SharePoint app that displays a list of documents for a company that sells insurance
policies. The documents have been crawled by the Search service.
You create managed properties named Underwriter and Bonded.
You must locate the documents that meet the following criteria:
- Created by using Microsoft Word 2002
- Contains the exact phrase "life policy"
- Were underwritten by Woodgrove
You need to design a search query that locates the required documents.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate code segment from
each drop-down list in the answer area.)
Answer:

NO.2 HOTSPOT
You use the SharePoint 2013 Management Shell to access a SharePoint farm. A user reports an error
in one of the apps that you have installed. The error message contains the correlation token ID of
b49f64b3-4722-4336-9a5c-56c326b344d4.
You need to save a report of the complete error trace for all errors that were reported in the previous
30 minutes.
How should you complete the Windows PowerShell cmdlet? (To answer, select the appropriate
option from each drop-down list in the answer area.)
Answer:

NO.3 You need to print out the terms and term sets for the Document Library app named Project
Documents.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Insert the following code segment at line DL59: Console.WriteLine("TermSet : = + termSet.Name +
" Term : " + term.Name);
B. Insert the following code segment at line DL70: Console.WriteLine("TermSet : " + termSet.Name);
C. Insert the following code segment at line DL35: TaxonomySession taxonomy =
TaxonomySession.GetTaxonomySession(clientContext);
D. Insert the following code segment at line DL56: Console.WriteLine("TermSet : " + termSet.Name);
E. Insert the following code segment at line DL35: TaxonomyItem taxonomy =
TaxonomySession.GetTaxonomySession(clientContext);
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
From scenario: You must develop a console app to print the current term sets and each root term for
the app by using the following style: TermSet: name Term: name You must create a Department term
set to store team member roles and organize them by department types. The import file for the
Department term set is the default for all new projects. The import file contains terms for System
Architect, Programmer, Producer, and Manager. Each term is contained within two parent groups,
Engineering or Production. Managers are members of the Production group only. All of the parent
groups use a shared root-level term.

NO.4 DRAG DROP
You connect to a front-end web server in a SharePoint farm for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
You start the SharePoint Management Shell by using an account that has administrator permissions
for the user-profile store. You use Windows PowerShell to create a User Profile property. You add the
profile type and sub type to the User Profile property.
You run the following Windows PowerShell cmdlets:
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell cmdlets? (To answer, drag the
appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll to view content.)
Answer:

NO.5 You need to configure a new site collection in Central Administration.
You will use the site collection to manage navigation terms.
What should you do?
A. Create a site collection by using the Publishing Portal template.
B. Create a site collection by using the Enterprise Search Center template.
C. Create a site collection by using the Records Center template.
D. Set the website address to http://adventureworks.com/sites/navigation
Answer: A

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NO.6 You must create a search results page for the real estate properties that are available in each
real estate office.
You need to display the search result for the internet site collection.
Which types of files should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all
that apply.)
A. JavaScript (.js)
B. Active Server Page (.aspx)
C. Master Page (.master)
D. HTML (.html)
E. XML (.xml)
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note:
*Master Page defines "placeholders" which can be overridden in child page
*Content Page of a Master Page defaults to default.aspx

NO.7 You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that
apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 You develop a SharePoint app for a toy company that uses the Representational State Transfer
(REST) API for search.
The site collections in the app have been crawled recently and use the default search schema.
The app includes the following code segment: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You create the following result sources.
You need to ensure that the app only displays PDF documents.
Which code segment should you insert at line 03?
A. varresultSourceId = "Site PDF";
B. varresuitSourceId = "4C50FE18-B254-47A1-ABAD-0B6C4577D914";
C. varresultSourceId = "0F41A999-523A-41ED-AAAD-9D414A0FC3B4";
D. varresultSourceId = "82951A0C-6385-4E29-8D7F-4AB92FE9F536";
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are correct about the HA command diagnose sys ha reset-
uptime? (Choose two.)
A. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if override is
disabled.
B. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if override is
enabled.
C. This command has no impact on the HA algorithm.
D. This command resets the uptime variable used in the HA algorithm so it may cause a
new master to become elected.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 In HA, the option Reserve Management Port for Cluster Member is selected as shown in the
exhibit below.
Which statements are correct regarding this setting? (Choose two.)
A. Interface settings on port7 will not be synchronized with other cluster members.
B. The IP address assigned to this interface must not overlap with the IP address subnet assigned to
another interface.
C. When connecting to port7 you always connect to the master device.
D. A gateway address may be configured for port7.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which statements are true regarding traffic shaping that is applied in an application sensor, and
associated with a firewall policy? (Choose two.)
A. Shared traffic shaping cannot be used.
B. Only traffic matching the application control signature is shaped.
C. Can limit the bandwidth usage of heavy traffic applications.
D. Per-IP traffic shaping cannot be used.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which of the following regular expression patterns make the terms "confidential data" case
insensitive?
A. [confidential data]
B. /confidential data/i
C. i/confidential data/
D. "confidential data"
Answer: B

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NO.5 When browsing to an internal web server using a web-mode SSL VPN bookmark, which IP
address is used as the source of the HTTP request?
A. The remote user's virtual IP address.
B. The FortiGate unit's internal IP address.
C. The remote user's public IP address.
D. The FortiGate unit's external IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which tasks fall under the responsibility of the SSL proxy in a typical HTTPS connection?
(Choose two.)
A. The web client SSL handshake.
B. The web server SSL handshake.
C. File buffering.
D. Communication with the URL filter process.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Review the IPsec phase 2 configuration shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
Which statements are correct regarding this configuration? (Choose two.).
A. The Phase 2 will re-key even if there is no traffic.
B. There will be a DH exchange for each re-key.
C. The sequence number of ESP packets received from the peer will not be checked.
D. Quick mode selectors will default to those used in the firewall policy.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which statements are correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? (Choose two.)
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that each have dedicated
memory and CPUs.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP, logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
D. Different time zones can be configured in each VDOM.
Answer: B,C

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Featured APICS certification CPIM-MPR exam test questions and answers

NO.1 The question below is based on the following information:
Which of the following weekly production rates best supports these criteria?
A. 70
B. 78
C. 80
D. 90
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which of the following environments does demand change from dependent to independent
at the raw material level?
A. Finish-to-order
B. Make-to-order
C. Assemble-to-order
D. Make-to-stock
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following objectives is a critical performance measurement in distribution network
logistics?
A. Increasing the service level
B. Increasing cash-to-cash cycle time
C. Increasing inventory days of supply
D. Decreasing inventory turnover
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following items is required for making realistic customer promises?
A. Feasible master schedules
B. Procedures for managing abnormal demand
C. Finished-goods safety stock
D. A sales and operations planning process
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following types of activities links the marketplace, sister plants, warehouses, and
distribution channels?
A. Forecast management
B. Resource management
C. Demand management
D. Sales management
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements about both econometric models and market research is
true?
A. They are examples of intrinsic forecasting techniques.
B. They are useful in forecasting at the stockkeeping unit level.
C. They are useful in aggregate planning.
D. They can be used in place of adaptive smoothing.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following actions would most likely lead to an achievable master production
schedule?
A. Minimizing changes in periods before the demand time fence
B. Keeping safety stock for key subassemblies
C. Limiting changes in periods after the planning time fence
D. Committing to customer requested shipment dates
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following criteria is used to determine safety stock in a distribution center?
A. Economic order quantity
B. Seasonal index value
C. Alpha factor level
D. Probability of stocking out
Answer: D

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