2015年7月23日星期四

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NO.1 Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the
receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E

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NO.2 A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is
damaged.
The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Answer: D

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NO.3 A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing
an
FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network
administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

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NO.4 A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared
twisted
pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

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2015年7月22日星期三

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NO.1 [DRAG And DROP]
You have a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure that contains two servers. The servers are configured as
shown in the following table.
You deploy a new server named lync3.contoso.com. You plan to install the Edge Server role on
Lync3.
You need to identify which tasks must be performed to install the Edge Server role on Lync3. Which
four
actions should you identify? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
A. From Lync1, modify the topology by using the Topology Builder.
B. From Lync1, publish the topology by using the Topology Builder.
C. On Lync3, install Lync Server 2013.
D. From Lync1, run the Export-CsConfiguration cmdlet.
E. From Lync3, run the Import-CsConfiguration cmdlet.
Answer: ADE

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NO.2 You have a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure. You plan to deploy an archiving solution. Your
company
has a compliance policy that has the following requirements:
¡ ¤Instant messaging (IM) conversations between external users and the members of a group named
Traders must be archived.
¡ ¤IM conversations between external users and the members of a group named HR must be
archived
¡ ¤The internal IM conversations of all other users must be archived. You need to configure archiving
policies to meet the compliance policy requirements. Which three actions should you perform?
(Each
correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the global archiving policy to archive internal and external IM conversations.
B. Create a site-level archiving policy that is configured to archive internal and external IM
conversations.
C. Create a user-level archiving policy that is configured to archive external IM traffic. Assign the
policy to
the Traders group.
D. Create a user-level archiving policy that is configured to archive internal and external IM traffic.
Assign
the policy to the HR group.
E. Configure the global archiving policy to archive internal IM conversations.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 You have a Lync Server 2010 infrastructure that contains an Edge Server named Edge1. Five
hundred
remote users connect to Edge1 from the Internet. Each user has a SIP address that uses a suffix of
@contoso.com. You deploy an Edge Server named Edge2 that has Lync Server 2013 deployed. You
create a host (A) record that points to edge2.contoso.com. You need to ensure that 20 remote users
connect to Edge2. All other remote users must continue to connect to Edge1. What should you do?
A. Create a service location (SRV) record that points to edge2.contoso.com.
B. Instruct the users to modify the Advanced Connection Settings of their Microsoft Lync client.
C. Create an alias (CNAME) record that points to edge2.contoso.com.
D. Instruct the users to modify the sign-in address of the Microsoft Lync client.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure. You create a new common area phone. You need
to
configure the common area phone for hot desking. The solution must enable hot desking for the
common
area phone only. What should you do?
A. Create a per-user voice policy and assign the policy to a Phone object.
B. Create a per-user client policy and assign the policy to a Phone object.
C. Modify the global client policy.
D. Modify the global voice policy.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office has 3,000 users. The
branch office
has 100 users. The offices are connected via a WAN link. You have a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure.
The main office has a pool named Pool1 that contains two Enterprise Edition Front End Servers. The
branch office only contains an Active Directory domain controller and a file server. You need to
recommend a high-availability solution to ensure that users can establish calls if one of the
following
components fails:
¡ ¤A Front End Serve
¡ ¤A PSTN gatewa
¡ ¤A WAN router The solution must minimize deployment andmaintenance costs. What should you
recommend?
A. In the branch office, deploy an SBA named SBA1. Configure SBA1 to use Pool1 as a backup
registrar.
Configure two trunks in Pool1. Configure one trunk in SBA1.
B. In the branch office, deploy a second Enterprise Edition pool named Pool2. Configure Pool1 to
use
Pool2 as a backup pool. Configure one trunk in Pool1. Configure one trunk in Pool2.
C. In the branch office, deploy a second Enterprise Edition pool named Pool2. Configure Pool1 to
use
Pool2 as a backup pool. Configure two trunks in Pool1. Configure two trunks in Pool2.
D. In the main office, deploy a second Enterprise Edition pool named Pool2. In the branch office,
deploy
an SBA named SBA1. Configure SBA1 to use Pool2 as a backup registrar. Configure two trunks in
Pool1.
Configure two trunks in SBA1.
Answer: A

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Best Cloudera CCD-410 test training guide

NO.1 For each intermediate key, each reducer task can emit:
A. As many final key-value pairs as desired. There are no restrictions on the types of those key-value
pairs (i.e., they can be heterogeneous).
B. As many final key-value pairs as desired, but they must have the same type as the intermediate
key-value pairs.
C. As many final key-value pairs as desired, as long as all the keys have the same type and all the
values have the same type.
D. One final key-value pair per value associated with the key; no restrictions on the type.
E. One final key-value pair per key; no restrictions on the type.
Answer: C

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Reference: Hadoop Map-Reduce Tutorial; Yahoo! Hadoop Tutorial, Module 4: MapReduce

NO.2 You've written a MapReduce job that will process 500 million input records and generated 500
million key-value pairs. The data is not uniformly distributed. Your MapReduce job will create a
significant amount of intermediate data that it needs to transfer between mappers and reduces
which is a potential bottleneck. A custom implementation of which interface is most likely to reduce
the amount of intermediate data transferred across the network?
A. Partitioner
B. OutputFormat
C. WritableComparable
D. Writable
E. InputFormat
F. Combiner
Answer: F

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Explanation:
Combiners are used to increase the efficiency of a MapReduce program. They are used to aggregate
intermediate map output locally on individual mapper outputs. Combiners can help you reduce the
amount of data that needs to be transferred across to the reducers. You can use your reducer code
as a combiner if the operation performed is commutative and associative.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What are
combiners? When should I use a combiner in my MapReduce Job?

NO.3 To process input key-value pairs, your mapper needs to lead a 512 MB data file in memory.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Serialize the data file, insert in it the JobConf object, and read the data into memory in the
configure method of the mapper.
B. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the map method of
the mapper.
C. Place the data file in the DataCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of the
mapper.
D. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the configure method
of the mapper.
Answer: C

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NO.4 On a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), a TaskTracker heartbeats into the JobTracker on
your cluster, and alerts the JobTracker it has an open map task slot.
What determines how the JobTracker assigns each map task to a TaskTracker?
A. The amount of RAM installed on the TaskTracker node.
B. The amount of free disk space on the TaskTracker node.
C. The number and speed of CPU cores on the TaskTracker node.
D. The average system load on the TaskTracker node over the past fifteen (15) minutes.
E. The location of the InsputSplit to be processed in relation to the location of the node.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
The TaskTrackers send out heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few minutes, to
reassure the JobTracker that it is still alive. These message also inform the JobTracker of the number
of available slots, so the JobTracker can stay up to date with where in the cluster work can be
delegated. When the JobTracker tries to find somewhere to schedule a task within the MapReduce
operations, it first looks for an empty slot on the same server that hosts the DataNode containing the
data, and if not, it looks for an empty slot on a machine in the same rack.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How JobTracker
schedules a task?

NO.5 In a MapReduce job, the reducer receives all values associated with same key. Which statement
best describes the ordering of these values?
A. The values are in sorted order.
B. The values are arbitrarily ordered, and the ordering may vary from run to run of the same
MapReduce job.
C. The values are arbitrary ordered, but multiple runs of the same MapReduce job will always have
the same ordering.
D. Since the values come from mapper outputs, the reducers will receive contiguous sections of
sorted values.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note:
*Input to the Reducer is the sorted output of the mappers.
*The framework calls the application's Reduce function once for each unique key in the sorted
order.
*Example:
For the given sample input the first map emits:
< Hello, 1>
< World, 1>
< Bye, 1>
< World, 1>
The second map emits:
< Hello, 1>
< Hadoop, 1>
< Goodbye, 1>
< Hadoop, 1>

NO.6 Table metadata in Hive is:
A. Stored as metadata on the NameNode.
B. Stored along with the data in HDFS.
C. Stored in the Metastore.
D. Stored in ZooKeeper.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
By default, hive use an embedded Derby database to store metadata information.
The metastore is the "glue" between Hive and HDFS. It tells Hive where your data files live in
HDFS, what type of data they contain, what tables they belong to, etc.
The Metastore is an application that runs on an RDBMS and uses an open source ORM layer
called DataNucleus, to convert object representations into a relational schema and vice versa.
They chose this approach as opposed to storing this information in hdfs as they need the
Metastore to be very low latency. The DataNucleus layer allows them to plugin many different
RDBMS technologies.
Note:
*By default, Hive stores metadata in an embedded Apache Derby database, and other
client/server databases like MySQL can optionally be used.
*features of Hive include:
Metadata storage in an RDBMS, significantly reducing the time to perform semantic checks during
query execution.
Reference: Store Hive Metadata into RDBMS

NO.7 You want to understand more about how users browse your public website, such as which
pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a farm of 200 web servers hosting your website.
How will you gather this data for your analysis?
A. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume.
B. Write a MapReduce job, with the web servers for mappers, and the Hadoop cluster nodes for
reduces.
C. Import all users' clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop, using Sqoop.
D. Channel these clickstreams inot Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming.
E. Sample the weblogs from the web servers, copying them into Hadoop using curl.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You write MapReduce job to process 100 files in HDFS. Your MapReduce algorithm uses
TextInputFormat: the mapper applies a regular expression over input values and emits key-values
pairs with the key consisting of the matching text, and the value containing the filename and byte
offset. Determine the difference between setting the number of reduces to one and settings the
number of reducers to zero.
A. There is no difference in output between the two settings.
B. With zero reducers, no reducer runs and the job throws an exception. With one reducer, instances
of matching patterns are stored in a single file on HDFS.
C. With zero reducers, all instances of matching patterns are gathered together in one file on HDFS.
With one reducer, instances of matching patterns are stored in multiple files on HDFS.
D. With zero reducers, instances of matching patterns are stored in multiple files on HDFS. With one
reducer, all instances of matching patterns are gathered together in one file on HDFS.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* It is legal to set the number of reduce-tasks to zero if no reduction is desired.
In this case the outputs of the map-tasks go directly to the FileSystem, into the output path set by
setOutputPath(Path). The framework does not sort the map-outputs before writing them out to the
FileSystem.
* Often, you may want to process input data using a map function only. To do this, simply set
mapreduce.job.reduces to zero. The MapReduce framework will not create any reducer tasks.
Rather, the outputs of the mapper tasks will be the final output of the job.
Note:
Reduce
In this phase the reduce(WritableComparable, Iterator, OutputCollector, Reporter) method is
called for each <key, (list of values)> pair in the grouped inputs.
The output of the reduce task is typically written to the FileSystem via
OutputCollector.collect(WritableComparable, Writable).
Applications can use the Reporter to report progress, set application-level status messages and
update Counters, or just indicate that they are alive.
The output of the Reducer is not sorted.

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NO.1 In the Form Editor, which two navigation group-related actions can you perform? Each correct
answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create a navigation group.
B. Move items from one navigation group to another.
C. Rename a navigation group.
D. Delete a navigation group.
E. Hide a navigation group from a security role.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A custom entity is no longer required.What should you do before deleting the entity?
A. Remove the entity from any required security roles.
B. Check whether the entity has any dependencies.
C. Reassign all the records in the entity.
D. Change the entity ownership to Organization.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You need to track referrals for Leads, Opportunities, and a custom entity named
Events.Referrals can be of type Direct, Indirect, Family, Friend, or Colleague.
You need to track the referral source and type.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Event entity to allow connections.Create a connection role for each referral
type.For each connection role, set the record types to Lead, Opportunity, and Event.
B. Create a custom option set field named Referral on the Contact form.
C. Add a single line text field named Referral to the Leads, Opportunities, and Events forms.
D. Create native many-to-many (N:N) relationships between each of the entities: Leads,
Opportunities, and Events.Then customize the intersecting entity of the relationship by adding a
referral option set.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which action can you perform with a Lookup view?
A. Create a new view based on the Lookup view.
B. Delete the Lookup view.
C. Customize the Lookup view.
D. Set the Lookup view as the default view.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement about the modification of Microsoft Dynamics CRM Solutions is true?
A. The terms "customization" and "configuration" can be used interchangeably.
B. Having an external partner perform customizations reduces the number of requirements that
must be met by the customizations.
C. Customizing Microsoft Dynamics CRM often requires the use of third-party development tools.
D. Extending Microsoft Dynamics CRM is constrained by the capabilities of the user interface.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What defines the form or forms to which a specific business rule is applied?
A. Logic
B. Action
C. Scope
D. Condition
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two methods can you use to open a Quick Create form? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. In a form that has a lookup field, click the search button and then click New.
B. After performing a search in a lookup field, click the search button, click Look Up More Records,
and then click New.
C. Click the Create button on the navigation bar, and then click the entity for which you want to
create the record.
D. In a subgrid, click New, click the search button, click Look Up More Records, and then click New.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of stages a business process can contain?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
Answer: D

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Best IBM C4040-251 exam questions and answers

NO.1 Which Power Systems tool uses published benchmark data to create a simple cost comparison
between Scale-out and x86 servers?
A. Quick Reference Tool
B. Workload Estimator Tool
C. TCA-TCO Seller Tool
D. Server Consolidation Tool
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is interested in migrating Little Endian (LE) Linux workloads to POWERS servers
running PowerKVM.
Which Linux distribution will satisfy the requirement?
A. Ubuntu
B. RedHat
C. CentOS
D. SUSE
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which tape backup option is supported for migration from a POWER6 520 with a SCSI
attached external LTO-3 tape drive to a POWER8 S814, and is read compatible with LTO3?
A. Migrate the SCSI adapter to the S814 and attach it to an existing LTO-3 tape drive.
B. Add an SAS adapter and external LTO-5 tape drive.
C. Add an internal LTO-4 tape drive in the CEC.
D. Add an SAS adapter and external LTO-6 tape drive.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Dynamic partition migration , the following is required ?
A. PowerVM Enterprise Edition SAN disk system Virtual Ethernet
B. dedicated processor PowerVM Enterprise Edition Virtual Ethernet
C. dual VIO server PowerVM Enterprise Edition SAN attached disk Two virtual processors
D. dedicated processor Dual VIO server SAN disk system Virtual Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.5 Compared with 720 quad-core , four -core S814 What added to the standard features to
improve RAS capabilities ?
A. RAID 0
B. Chipkill Memory
C. Support PCIe Hot
D. alternate processor recovery (Alternate Processor Recovery}
Answer: B

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NO.6 What benefit does the CAP I feature of POWER8 provide?
A. The ability to attach accelerators that have shared memory access that is coherent with the
system's processors.
B. An implementation of AME on a hardware accelerator.
C. The ability to dispatch multiple virtual machines on a single core at the same time.
D. An alternative to memory lock base synchronization.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What provides a comparison of Power Systems to competitors for applications?
A. SPECint
B. RPE2
C. SPECfp
D. TPM
Answer: A

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NO.8 There are 20 partitions on the customer's Power8 system , want to allocate additional storage
from non- IBM SAN to each partition. License fees for all partitions drivers and multi-path software
beyond the current budget.
Which one of the following technologies will meet their demands in the budget ?
A. NPIV
B. SAS
C. SSD
D. vSCSI
Answer: D

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Amazon AWS-Solutions-Associate exam practice questions and answers

NO.1 Which set of Amazon S3 features helps to prevent and recover from accidental data loss?
A. Object lifecycle and service access logging
B. Object versioning and Multi-factor authentication
C. Access controls and server-side encryption
D. Website hosting and Amazon S3 policies
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are running a successful multitier web application on AWS and your marketing department
has asked you to add a reporting tier to the application. The reporting tier will aggregate and publish
status reports every 30 minutes from user-generated information that is being stored in your web
application s database. You are currently running a Multi-AZ RDS MySQL instance for the database
tier. You also have implemented Elasticache as a database caching layer between the application tier
and database tier. Please select the answer that will allow you to successfully implement the
reporting tier with as little impact as possible to your database.
A. Continually send transaction logs from your master database to an S3 bucket and generate the
reports off the S3 bucket using S3 byte range requests.
B. Generate the reports by querying the synchronously replicated standby RDS MySQL instance
maintained through Multi-AZ.
C. Launch a RDS Read Replica connected to your Multi AZ master database and generate reports by
querying the Read Replica.
D. Generate the reports by querying the ElastiCache database caching tier.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Can I test my DB Instance against a new version before upgrading?
A. Only in VPC
B. No
C. Yes
Answer: C

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NO.4 Amazon SWF is designed to help users...
A. Design graphical user interface interactions
B. Manage user identification and authorization
C. Store Web content
D. Coordinate synchronous and asynchronous tasks which are distributed and fault tolerant.
Answer: D

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NO.5 In the Amazon RDS which uses the SQL Server engine, what is the maximum size for a Microsoft
SQL Server DB Instance with SQL Server Express edition?
A. 10 GB per DB
B. 100 GB per DB
C. 2 TB per DB
D. 1TB per DB
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are the Amazon EC2 API tools?
A. They don't exist. The Amazon EC2 AMI tools, instead, are used to manage permissions.
B. Command-line tools to the Amazon EC2 web service.
C. They are a set of graphical tools to manage EC2 instances.
D. They don't exist. The Amazon API tools are a client interface to Amazon Web Services.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Amazon RDS automated backups and DB Snapshots are currently supported for only the ______
storage engine
A. MyISAM
B. InnoDB
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your company is getting ready to do a major public announcement of a social media site on
AWS.
The website is running on EC2 instances deployed across multiple Availability Zones with a Multi-AZ
RDS MySQL Extra Large DB Instance. The site performs a high number of small reads and writes per
second and relies on an eventual consistency model. After comprehensive tests you discover that
there is read contention on RDS MySQL. Which are the best approaches to meet these requirements?
(Choose 2 answers)
A. Deploy ElasticCache in-memory cache running in each availability zone
B. Implement sharding to distribute load to multiple RDS MySQL instances
C. Increase the RDS MySQL Instance size and Implement provisioned IOPS
D. Add an RDS MySQL read replica in each availability zone
Answer: A,C

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2015年7月21日星期二

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NO.1 Which NAS backup environment transfers data to be backed up over a private backup
network?
A. NDMP three-way
B. NDMP two-way
C. Server-based
D. Serverless
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a characteristic of asynchronous remote replication?
A. Only the last update is transmitted if there are multiple writes to the same location in the buffer
B. Writes are committed to the target before being committed to the source
C. Reads are always serviced from the target replica
D. Distance between the two sites is restricted to less than 200 km
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is an element of a NAS head?
A. Control station
B. Storage controller
C. Data accepted in real time
D. Optimized operating system
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Components of NAS A NAS device has two key components: NAS head and storage. In some NAS
implementations, the storage could be external to the NAS device and shared with other hosts. The
NAS head includes the following components: CPU and memory One or more network interface cards
(NICs), which provide connectivity to the client network. Examples of network protocols supported by
NIC include Gigabit Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, ATM, and Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) An
optimized operating system for managing the NAS functionality. It translates file level requests into
block-storage requests and further converts the data supplied at the block level to file data NFS, CIFS,
and other protocols for file sharing Industry-standard storage protocols and ports to connect and
manage physical disk resources The NAS environment includes clients accessing a NAS device over an
IP network using file sharing protocols.
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NO.4 Refer to Exhibit:
Which type of cloud deployment model is represented in the exhibit?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Community
D. Hybrid
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a virtualized environment, which method enables a virtual machine to be rolled back in case
of a logical corruption to the virtual machine?
A. Virtual volume replication
B. VM snapshot
C. Storage array volume replication
D. VM clone
Answer: B

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NO.6 In a copy on first access (CoFA) technique, when is data copied from the source to the target?
A. All writes are issued to a location on the source
B. All writes are issued to a location on the target
C. A read or write is issued for the first time to a location on the target
D. A read is issued for the first time from a location on the source
Answer: C

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NO.7 How is the internal transfer rate of disk drives defined?
A. Speed at which data moves from the read/write head to the platter
B. Speed at which data moves from a platter's surface to the internal buffer
C. Speed at which data moves from internal buffer to the host interface
D. Speed at which data moves from the innermost cylinder to the read/write head
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommitted cached data when there is a
power failure?
A. Cache vaulting
B. Cache mirroring
C. Low watermarking
D. Prefetching
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Cache Data Protection Cache is volatile memory, so a power failure or any kind of cache failure will
cause loss of the data that is not yet committed to the disk. This risk of losing uncommitted data held
in cache can be mitigated using cache mirroring and cache vaulting:
Cache mirroring: Each write to cache is held in two different memory locations on two independent
memory cards. If a cache failure occurs, the write data will still be safe in the mirrored location and
can be committed to the disk. Reads are staged from the disk to the cache; therefore, if a cache
failure occurs, the data can still be accessed from the disk. Because only writes are mirrored, this
method results in better utilization of the available cache. In cache mirroring approaches, the
problem of maintaining cache coherency is introduced. Cache coherency means that data in two
different cache locations must be identical at all times. It is the responsibility of the array operating
environment to ensure coherency. Cache vaulting: The risk of data loss due to power failure can be
addressed in various ways: powering the memory with a battery until the AC power is restored or
using battery power to write the cache content to the disk. If an extended power failure occurs, using
batteries is not a viable option. This is because in intelligent storage systems, large amounts of data
might need to be committed to numerous disks, and batteries might not provide power for sufficient
time to write each piece of data to its intended disk. Therefore, storage vendors use a set of physical
disks to dump the contents of cache during power failure. This is called cache vaulting and the disks
are called vault drives. When power is restored, data from these disks is written back to write cache
and then written to the intended disks. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 4: Intelligent
Storage System

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