2015年4月14日星期二

1Y0-253 Actual Test, 1Y0-A16 Free download, 1Y0-200 Exam Tests

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NO.1 Which three sections should an architect incorporate into the Project Initiation Document (PID) to
ensure that the project meets the business and technical requirements of Healthy Helping Hands?
(Choose three.)
A.Risk Log
B.Stage Plan
C.Project Scope
D.Detailed Design
E.Resource Requirements
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking into making New York and San
Francisco their two principal sites, each capable of failing over to the other. This will be one of the major
requirements for the Citrix infrastructure design. Which two backend infrastructure components need
improvements in disaster recovery support as part of this project? (Choose two)
A.HP SAN storage
B.User Profile server
C.PositivelyPeople database
D.Terminal Services license server
Answer: CA

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NO.3 How should an architect recommend delivery applications to the Manufacturing users at Healthy
Helping Hands?
A.Publish the applications to new PCs.
B.Publish the applications to their existing devices.
C.Use XenDesktop to deliver disk-based thin clients.
D.Publish the applications to new diskless thin clients
Answer: D

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NO.4 Scenario: As Healthy Helping Hands continues to expand, the demand placed on the current solution
will increase significantly. As such, an architect must access the current hardware to indentify constraints
against the company
future growth. Which statement best describes a current
hardware constraint?
A.Hard drive capacity cannot be expanded due to space limitations.
B.Existing server compressors are not capable of supporting 64-bit architecture.
C.The existing 1Gbps server NIC speed is insufficient for home user connectivity.
D.Server memory is at or above the maximum supported by the current hardware and operating system.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking at a project to expand and upgrade
their Citrix environment to meet their current and future business needs. The main business
requirement for this project is to provide secure and reliable access to company-owned applications for all
the current and future staff, including contractors around the world. Which two issues present a risk to the
project and its deadlines based on the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A.Print jobs intermittently fail
B.A dispersed user community
C.Wide range of device types in use
D.Unpredictable timing and size of acquisitions
E.External access only through an intermittently failing Secure Gateway
Answer: EB

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2015年4月13日星期一

6209 Study Guide, 6103 Dumps PDF, 3107 Exam Cram

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NO.1 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.3 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

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10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.5 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

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NO.8 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

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NO.1 Rachel has added a custom new parameter named user to the page properties of the Human
Resources page.
How can Rachel retrieve this parameter?
A. She is unable to access the user parameter.
B. She can use the <portal-logic:pageMetaData> tag to obtain the user parameter from any page.
C. She can use the <portal-logic:pageMetaData> tag to obtain the user parameter from the Human
Resources page.
D. She can use the <portlet-logic:pageMetaData> tag to obtain the user parameter from the Human
Resources page.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Tyler is developing a portlet that allows a user to see all the pages that the user can access in
the portal. Which portal model should Tyler use to get the pages that are visible to the specific user
who is logged in?
A. Layout model
B. Content model
C. Navigation model
D. Navigation Selection model
Answer: C

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NO.3 Kaveri needs to develop a portletthat uses Ajax Proxy to get the news feed from the URL
http:/Avww.ibm.com/developerworks/news/dw_dwtp.rss. The following configuration information is
present in the proxy-config.xml:
<mapping contextpath="/devworks" url="http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/"/>
Which is the correct URL to use in the Ajax call?
A. http://myportal.com:10040/wps/devworks/news/dw_dwtp.rss
B. http://myportaLcom:10040Avps/proxy/devworks/news/dw_dwtp.rss
C.http://myportal.com:10040/wps/proxy/http/www.ibmxom/developerworks/news/dw_dwtp.rss
D.http://myportaLcom:10040/wps/devworks/http/www.ibm.com/developerworks/news/dw_dwt
p.rss
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which options are true regarding the Portlet State Manager Service? (Choose two.)
A. It is obtainable by using a JNDI lookup.
B. It changes the state of the server when called.
C. It is not a valid IBM WebSphere Portal Service.
D. It supports portlets that are compliant with JSR 168 and JSR 286.
E. It is obtainable by using the <portlet: state_manage r_se rvice> tag.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 John, an IBM WebSphere Portal developer, is writing a portlet to help support specialists with
reproducing users' issues.
Which WebSphere Portal feature can John use to run his task?
A. Personalization
B. People Awareness
C. User Impersonation
D. User and Groups Management
Answer: C

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Explanation:
While impersonating the user use the "My Sites" menu in the dockbar to go to any of his sites Result:
The impersonation is lost, the site is accessed as the administrator user

NO.6 Sally developed a custom theme module that requires Dojo to render it. In the custom module
definition,
she added the Dojo modules to the prerequisite list. Sally then added her custom module to the non-
deferred section of the
Deferred (Default) profile, leaving the Dojo modules in the deferred section.
What is the result of rendering a page in view mode with the Deferred (Default) profile assigned?
A. The custom module is not run.
B. The Dojo modules are promoted to non-deferred.
C. A JavaScript error occurs, indicating that Dojo is undefined.
D. A server-side error occurs, indicating that the Dojo modules are deferred.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Jack wants to allow users to bookmark his portal page. He is using the following code:
<portal-navigation:urlGeneration>
<a href="<% wpsURL.write(out); %>"> My Page
</a> </portal-navigation:urlGeneration>
What change must he make to this code to allow users to bookmark the page?
A. The code is correct and will allow the users to bookmark the page.
B. He must include the normalize="true" attribute to indicate that the URL to be generated should be
normalized.
C. He must include the forceAbsolute="true" attribute to indicate that the URL to be generated
should be absolute.
D. He must include the keepNavigationalState="true" attribute to indicate that the URL to be
generated should keep the current navigational state, which will include all portlet modes, states,
and render parameters in the URL.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which programming language do you use for SAP Landscape Transformation based
transformation rules?
A. SQLScript
B. Java
C. ABAP
D. JavaScript
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are reviewing the execution plan of an SQL statement. You want to find out which plan
operators (POPs) have been executed in parallel and for how long each of them has been active.
Where can you accomplish this?
A. In SAP NetWeaver: DBA Cockpit (DBACOCKPIT) SQL Plan Cache EXPLAIN (graphically)
B. In SAP HANA studio: Display the Timeline view via Window Show View Other ... Plan Visualizer
Timeline
C. In SAP HANA studio: Administration Console Performance Job Progress
D. In HDB admin -> Performance trace Show Column Plans
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are using SAP Landscape Transformation to replicate data into SAP HANA.
Which of the following can you use to define the schema that the replicated data populates?
A. Advanced replication settings (transaction iuuc_repl_content)
B. Change Authoring Schema in the Quick Launch view
C. Data Provisioning in the Quick Launch view
D. Configuration & Monitoring Dashboard (transaction LTR)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following actions must you perform in an SAP HANA system to transport content
to another SAP HANA system? (Choose two)
A. Generate and save an export file to a shared directory.
B. Assign the content repository to a transport request.
C. Mass copy the content repository into the other SAP HANA system.
D. Assign the package to a delivery unit.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 What do you have to define in an attribute view to reduce the initial amount of data selected
from the data foundation tables?
A. A static filter value on any column in the data foundation tables
B. A column marked as "Hidden" in the output structure
C. A restricted column in the output structure
D. A dynamic filter value on a measure in the attribute view
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following can be grouped when multiple schemas exist in an SAP HANA database?
A. Information models
B. Data tables
C. Packages
D. Users
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following tools use SQL to communicate with SAP HANA? (Choose threE.
A. SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence
B. SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for OLAP
C. SAP BusinessObjects Information Design Tool
D. SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for Microsoft Office
E. SAP BusinessObjects Dashboards
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 Which of the following would you use to determine the engines that are used when an
information model is queried? (Choose two)
A. SQL plan cache
B. Timeline
C. Explain plan
D. Visualize plan
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 Which IBM Tivoli product automates license tracking in order to meet compliance
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Service Provider
B. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which industry solution based on IBM Maximo Asset Management provides the ability to record and manage smart meters?
A. IBM Maximo for Utilities
B. IBM Maximo for Government
C. IBM Maximo for Oil and Gas
D. IBM Maximo for Transportation
Answer: A

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NO.3 Across IBM Maximo Asset Management implementations, what is least likely to be
implemented at
the completion of the project (go-live date)?
A. inventory
B. work order
C. labor planning
D. preventive maintenance
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which item describes the basic concept of Total Productive Maintenance which is a
maintenance
methodology that a customer may subscribe to?
A. fix it before it breaks
B. all assets in use, generating value
C. all maintenance personnel in use, productively
D. zero error, zero work-related accidents, and zero loss
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has many assets that they would like to record and create master preventive maintenance records for in IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo). Which type of record, when purchasing, would create these assets in Maximo?
A. Rotating Items
B. Rotating Assets
C. Non-rotating Items
D. Non-rotating Assets
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is used to compare the estimate versus actual cost for a job?
A. The project cost accounting application
B. Job plan resources and actual resources
C. Work plan resources and actual resources
D. GL debit accounts and GL credit accounts
Answer: C

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NO.7 To prepare for detailed Reliability’ Centered Maintenance (RCM) analysis, important decisions
need to be made regarding the way equipment is classified from the main system to subsystem
and within unit levels. This must be done in a way that is consistent with the existing maintenance
strategy, tasks, routines, and levels of unit replacement. Which features and functions enable the
classification and navigation through this structure?
A. Drill Down and Classification
B. Drill Down and Select Action
C. Classification and Service Catalog
D. Select Action and Service Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a possible line type value on a purchase order line?
A. Asset
B. Material
C. Inventory
D. Standard Tool
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following chassis are compatible with the Intel Server Board S5520UR? (Select TWO).
A. Intel Server Chassis SR1600
B. Intel Server Chassis SR1625
C. Intel Server Chassis SR1630
D. Intel Server Chassis SR1640
E. Intel Server Chassis SR1695
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 On an Intel Server Board S5520HC, which of the following is the MAXIMUM possible memory speed
that can be reached when the system is configured with 12 DIMMs and 2 Intel Xeon Processors
X5650?
A. 800 MHz
B. 1066 MHz
C. 1333MHz
D. 1600 MHz
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Intel Server Board S5520UR has two different headers through which front panel signals can be
routed. Which of the following documents would a server technician use to identify the pinout of each
header?
A. The Technical Product Specification
B. The Service Guide
C. The Quick Start Guide
D. The Spare Parts and Configuration Guide
Answer: A

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NO.4 When updating the HSC firmware, where is the flash chip that the new firmware is written to?
A. On the backplane
B. On the power distribution board
C. On the remote management module
D. On the mainboard
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following RAID levels should an Intel Server Specialist recommend to a customer who
must have the highest reliability available, but only has room for four hard drives?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.6 An Intel Server Board is integrated into
an Intel Server Chassis and uses the latest system update
package to bring the BIOS and firmware to the most up-to-date versions. After this process, an Intel
Server Specialist finds that the system fans still spin at full speed, even when the system is idle. Which of
the following is the MOST likely cause of this?
A. The memory DIMMs in the system do not have a thermal sensor.
B. The processor has reached the thermal throttling point.
C. One of the system fans is connected to the wrong header.
D. The chassis intrusion switch is malfunctioning.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Below is a step in the server management configuration process. Which of the following is true about
this command.?
A. This SYSCFG command, Reset Factory Settings, can be used to erase all BMC management settings.
This command can be used to reset the management settings to support reconfiguration of management,
without carrying over previous management settings.
B. This SYSCFG command, Refreshes Sensors, resets the sensor values and forces the BMC to rescan
all sensors to update the Sensor Data Records (SDR). This is used when a system error has been
resolved, but the status remains critical in the SDR.
C. This SYSCFG command, Restore File System, is used to restore a backup of the server management
settings. This is an efficient method of restoring the BMC settings if they have been lost or deleted.
D. This DOS command allows a super user to replace the file system within the BMC, reformatting the
data area down to a low-level format prior to a system restore.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following documents and tools would a technician use to help determine the correct parts
necessary to build an Intel server? (Select TWO).
A. Quick Start Guide
B. Configuration Guide
C. Intel Server Configurator Tool (SCT)
D. Product Change Notification (PCN)
E. Technical Product Specification (TPS)
Answer: B,C

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2015年4月12日星期日

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NO.1 A compliance professional’s responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Understanding the business units operating environment and risk tolerance
B. Performing risk assessments with the assistance of business units to determine current
risk levels and risks associated with the bank’s products, lines of business, customers, and
locations, among other factors
C. Working with business units to ensure prompt corrective action for any detected errors
D. Assisting business lines with compliance training for employees, as needed
Answer: D

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NO.2 They also embrace the concept of risk-based compliance management. They expect
compliance management to be tailored to the bank, be it large or small, offering standard
or specialty financial services, simple or complex products lines, and adjusted as
appropriate for the customer base as that issued for the Bank Secrecy Act, also
establishes their expectations that a bank’s program be risk based. Who are they?
A. Outsourcing firms
B. Foreign financial service providers
C. Bank regulatory agencies
D. Risk management organizations
Answer: C

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NO.3 To be effective, compliance risk management professionals must design a framework to
ensure that bank management understands the risks and the steps that must be taken to
mitigate them. The many roles compliance professionals fill incorporate risk management
aspects including:
A. Coordinating regulatory exams to explain risks to examiners
B. Overseeing compliance training targeting higher risk areas
C. Tracking regulatory proposals and final rules to understand new risks
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a compliance program, tactical compliance procedures should be integrated into
business line procedures, such as how to deliver an Adverse Action Notice when an
application is declined. In this case:
A. Regulations should be applied consistently to procedures throughout the bank
B. Revisions to procedures should be based on compliance expertise and not mere editing
C. Providing solutions to mitigate any identified risk
D. Assisting business units in developing or revising policies and procedures to reflect
current regulatory requirements
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 should include basic elements designed to understand and mitigate risk.
It usually includes:
Written program
Compliance-related policies and procedures
A. Tactical Compliance procedure
B. Rank solution
C. Compliance program
D. None of these
Answer: C

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