2015年7月28日星期二

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NO.1 Which statement is true concerning SNATs using SNAT pools and SNATs using automap?
A. SNAT s using automap preferentially translate source addresses to non-floating self-IP addresses.
B. SNAT s using a SNAT pool translate source addresses randomly to any of the addresses in the
SNAT pool.
C. SNAT s using automap translate source addresses randomly to any of the BIG-IP's floating self-IP
addresses.
D. A .SNAT pool can contain virtual server addresses.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which action CANNOT be performed by an iRule?
A. Direct a connection request to a specific pool.
B. Substitute a server's response with alternate data.
C. Chang the virtual server's default pool.
D. Direct a client's request to a pool based on the client's browser's language.
E. Limit a given client to a set amount of bandwidth.
F. Discard a client before connecting to a server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which are immediate results of entering the following command: b pool PoolA . { lb method
predictive member 10.10.1 .1:80 member 10.10.1.2:80 }
A. Requests sent to this BIG-IP system with a destination port of 80 are load- balanced between the
members of PoolA.
B. No changes will take place since the command is missing the monitor component for PoolA.
C. The /config/bigip.cinf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named PoolA.
D. a new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which persistence method will always recognize a client when the client returns to the same
virtual server?
A. SSL
B. MSRDP
C. expression [universal]
D. No persistence method work in all situations.
E. source address
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement is true concerning iRule context?
A. The iRule event declaration determines the context.
B. the context must be explicitly declared.
C. The rule command determines the context.
D. The results of the iRule's conditional statement determines the context.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a pool is created and saved to file, where is the default file and location for the pool
configuration?
A. /config/bigip_base.conf
B. lconfig/bigip.conf
C. /etc/bigip_base.conf
D. /config/BigDB.dat
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A. In addition to administrator-created filters, three always exists a "deny all" filter that processes
traffic last.
B. Filters cannot prevent access to the management port.
C. The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied
D. Filters cannot prevent the BIG_IP synching process from taking place.
Answer: B

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2015年7月27日星期一

Microsoft certification 70-346 best exam questions and answers

NO.1 Your company has an Office 365 subscription. The network contains an Active Directory
domain. You configure single sign-on for all users.
You need to verify that single sign-on functions for the users who access Office 365 from the Internet.
What should you run?
A. the Get-MSOLFederationProperty cmdlet
B. the Test-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet
C. the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
D. the Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You assign the roles to users as shown in the following
table:
User3 must be able to monitor the health of the Exchange Online service. You must use the principle
of least privilege to assign permissions to User3.
You need to assign permissions to User3.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign User3 the service administrator role in Office 365.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as User1.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as User2.
D. Grant User3 administrative permissions in Exchange Online.
E. Assign User3 the global administrator role in Office 365.
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
Only the global administrator can delegate service administrator role.
http://onlinehelp.microsoft.com/en-in/office365-enterprises/ff637584.asp

NO.3 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You configure new user accounts
for User1 and User2. User1 has an on-premises mailbox. User2 has an Office 365 mailbox.
Each user must be able to view the availability of the other user.
You need to ascertain whether users can share their free/busy information.
What should you use?
A. Transport Reliability IP Probe (TRIPP Tool)
B. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer Tool
C. Business Connectivity Services
D. Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management
Answer: B

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NO.4 Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with
Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register-
AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor
Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.5 An organization implements single sign-on (5SO) for use with Office 365 services. You install an
Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server.
Users report that they are unable to authenticate. You launch the Event Viewer and view the event
information shown in the following screen shot:
You need to ensure that users can authenticate to Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Re-enter the credentials used to establish the trust.
B. Verify the federation server proxy is trusted by the federation service.
C. Re-install the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate for the federation service.
D. Verify network connectivity between the Federation Service Proxy and federation server.
Answer: A


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NO.6 You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user account
information.
You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis.
Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365.
You must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account data from
the file.
Answer: B

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NO.7 HOTSPOT
The legal department in your organization creates standardized disclaimers for all of their email
messages. The disclaimers explain that any transmissions that are received in error should be
reported back to the sender. You track any confidential documents that are attached to email
messages.
Your security team reports that an employee may have mistakenly sent an email message that
contained confidential information.
You need to identify whether the email message included the disclaimer and whether it contained
confidential information.
Which two options should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate objects in the answer
area.
Answer:

NO.8 Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You need to add the label "External" to the
subject line of each email message received by your organization from an external sender.
What should you do?
A. From the Exchange Control Panel, add a MailTip.
B. From the Forefront Online Protection Administration Center, set the footer for outbound email.
C. Run the Enable-InboxRule cmdlet.
D. From the Exchange Control Panel, run the New Rule wizard.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Option B also will do if that mention "Inbound email". But here it says outbound email, so D is the
current answer.

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2015年7月24日星期五

Microsoft certification 70-489 exam targeted exercises

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
You create a SharePoint app that displays a list of documents for a company that sells insurance
policies. The documents have been crawled by the Search service.
You create managed properties named Underwriter and Bonded.
You must locate the documents that meet the following criteria:
- Created by using Microsoft Word 2002
- Contains the exact phrase "life policy"
- Were underwritten by Woodgrove
You need to design a search query that locates the required documents.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate code segment from
each drop-down list in the answer area.)
Answer:

NO.2 HOTSPOT
You use the SharePoint 2013 Management Shell to access a SharePoint farm. A user reports an error
in one of the apps that you have installed. The error message contains the correlation token ID of
b49f64b3-4722-4336-9a5c-56c326b344d4.
You need to save a report of the complete error trace for all errors that were reported in the previous
30 minutes.
How should you complete the Windows PowerShell cmdlet? (To answer, select the appropriate
option from each drop-down list in the answer area.)
Answer:

NO.3 You need to print out the terms and term sets for the Document Library app named Project
Documents.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Insert the following code segment at line DL59: Console.WriteLine("TermSet : = + termSet.Name +
" Term : " + term.Name);
B. Insert the following code segment at line DL70: Console.WriteLine("TermSet : " + termSet.Name);
C. Insert the following code segment at line DL35: TaxonomySession taxonomy =
TaxonomySession.GetTaxonomySession(clientContext);
D. Insert the following code segment at line DL56: Console.WriteLine("TermSet : " + termSet.Name);
E. Insert the following code segment at line DL35: TaxonomyItem taxonomy =
TaxonomySession.GetTaxonomySession(clientContext);
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
From scenario: You must develop a console app to print the current term sets and each root term for
the app by using the following style: TermSet: name Term: name You must create a Department term
set to store team member roles and organize them by department types. The import file for the
Department term set is the default for all new projects. The import file contains terms for System
Architect, Programmer, Producer, and Manager. Each term is contained within two parent groups,
Engineering or Production. Managers are members of the Production group only. All of the parent
groups use a shared root-level term.

NO.4 DRAG DROP
You connect to a front-end web server in a SharePoint farm for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
You start the SharePoint Management Shell by using an account that has administrator permissions
for the user-profile store. You use Windows PowerShell to create a User Profile property. You add the
profile type and sub type to the User Profile property.
You run the following Windows PowerShell cmdlets:
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell cmdlets? (To answer, drag the
appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll to view content.)
Answer:

NO.5 You need to configure a new site collection in Central Administration.
You will use the site collection to manage navigation terms.
What should you do?
A. Create a site collection by using the Publishing Portal template.
B. Create a site collection by using the Enterprise Search Center template.
C. Create a site collection by using the Records Center template.
D. Set the website address to http://adventureworks.com/sites/navigation
Answer: A

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NO.6 You must create a search results page for the real estate properties that are available in each
real estate office.
You need to display the search result for the internet site collection.
Which types of files should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all
that apply.)
A. JavaScript (.js)
B. Active Server Page (.aspx)
C. Master Page (.master)
D. HTML (.html)
E. XML (.xml)
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note:
*Master Page defines "placeholders" which can be overridden in child page
*Content Page of a Master Page defaults to default.aspx

NO.7 You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that
apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 You develop a SharePoint app for a toy company that uses the Representational State Transfer
(REST) API for search.
The site collections in the app have been crawled recently and use the default search schema.
The app includes the following code segment: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You create the following result sources.
You need to ensure that the app only displays PDF documents.
Which code segment should you insert at line 03?
A. varresultSourceId = "Site PDF";
B. varresuitSourceId = "4C50FE18-B254-47A1-ABAD-0B6C4577D914";
C. varresultSourceId = "0F41A999-523A-41ED-AAAD-9D414A0FC3B4";
D. varresultSourceId = "82951A0C-6385-4E29-8D7F-4AB92FE9F536";
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are correct about the HA command diagnose sys ha reset-
uptime? (Choose two.)
A. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if override is
disabled.
B. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if override is
enabled.
C. This command has no impact on the HA algorithm.
D. This command resets the uptime variable used in the HA algorithm so it may cause a
new master to become elected.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 In HA, the option Reserve Management Port for Cluster Member is selected as shown in the
exhibit below.
Which statements are correct regarding this setting? (Choose two.)
A. Interface settings on port7 will not be synchronized with other cluster members.
B. The IP address assigned to this interface must not overlap with the IP address subnet assigned to
another interface.
C. When connecting to port7 you always connect to the master device.
D. A gateway address may be configured for port7.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which statements are true regarding traffic shaping that is applied in an application sensor, and
associated with a firewall policy? (Choose two.)
A. Shared traffic shaping cannot be used.
B. Only traffic matching the application control signature is shaped.
C. Can limit the bandwidth usage of heavy traffic applications.
D. Per-IP traffic shaping cannot be used.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which of the following regular expression patterns make the terms "confidential data" case
insensitive?
A. [confidential data]
B. /confidential data/i
C. i/confidential data/
D. "confidential data"
Answer: B

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NO.5 When browsing to an internal web server using a web-mode SSL VPN bookmark, which IP
address is used as the source of the HTTP request?
A. The remote user's virtual IP address.
B. The FortiGate unit's internal IP address.
C. The remote user's public IP address.
D. The FortiGate unit's external IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which tasks fall under the responsibility of the SSL proxy in a typical HTTPS connection?
(Choose two.)
A. The web client SSL handshake.
B. The web server SSL handshake.
C. File buffering.
D. Communication with the URL filter process.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Review the IPsec phase 2 configuration shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
Which statements are correct regarding this configuration? (Choose two.).
A. The Phase 2 will re-key even if there is no traffic.
B. There will be a DH exchange for each re-key.
C. The sequence number of ESP packets received from the peer will not be checked.
D. Quick mode selectors will default to those used in the firewall policy.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which statements are correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? (Choose two.)
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that each have dedicated
memory and CPUs.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP, logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
D. Different time zones can be configured in each VDOM.
Answer: B,C

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Featured APICS certification CPIM-MPR exam test questions and answers

NO.1 The question below is based on the following information:
Which of the following weekly production rates best supports these criteria?
A. 70
B. 78
C. 80
D. 90
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which of the following environments does demand change from dependent to independent
at the raw material level?
A. Finish-to-order
B. Make-to-order
C. Assemble-to-order
D. Make-to-stock
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following objectives is a critical performance measurement in distribution network
logistics?
A. Increasing the service level
B. Increasing cash-to-cash cycle time
C. Increasing inventory days of supply
D. Decreasing inventory turnover
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following items is required for making realistic customer promises?
A. Feasible master schedules
B. Procedures for managing abnormal demand
C. Finished-goods safety stock
D. A sales and operations planning process
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following types of activities links the marketplace, sister plants, warehouses, and
distribution channels?
A. Forecast management
B. Resource management
C. Demand management
D. Sales management
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements about both econometric models and market research is
true?
A. They are examples of intrinsic forecasting techniques.
B. They are useful in forecasting at the stockkeeping unit level.
C. They are useful in aggregate planning.
D. They can be used in place of adaptive smoothing.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following actions would most likely lead to an achievable master production
schedule?
A. Minimizing changes in periods before the demand time fence
B. Keeping safety stock for key subassemblies
C. Limiting changes in periods after the planning time fence
D. Committing to customer requested shipment dates
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following criteria is used to determine safety stock in a distribution center?
A. Economic order quantity
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C. Alpha factor level
D. Probability of stocking out
Answer: D

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2015年7月23日星期四

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NO.1 Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the
receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E

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NO.2 A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is
damaged.
The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Answer: D

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NO.3 A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing
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administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

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B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

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A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

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2015年7月22日星期三

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NO.1 [DRAG And DROP]
You have a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure that contains two servers. The servers are configured as
shown in the following table.
You deploy a new server named lync3.contoso.com. You plan to install the Edge Server role on
Lync3.
You need to identify which tasks must be performed to install the Edge Server role on Lync3. Which
four
actions should you identify? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
A. From Lync1, modify the topology by using the Topology Builder.
B. From Lync1, publish the topology by using the Topology Builder.
C. On Lync3, install Lync Server 2013.
D. From Lync1, run the Export-CsConfiguration cmdlet.
E. From Lync3, run the Import-CsConfiguration cmdlet.
Answer: ADE

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NO.2 You have a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure. You plan to deploy an archiving solution. Your
company
has a compliance policy that has the following requirements:
¡ ¤Instant messaging (IM) conversations between external users and the members of a group named
Traders must be archived.
¡ ¤IM conversations between external users and the members of a group named HR must be
archived
¡ ¤The internal IM conversations of all other users must be archived. You need to configure archiving
policies to meet the compliance policy requirements. Which three actions should you perform?
(Each
correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the global archiving policy to archive internal and external IM conversations.
B. Create a site-level archiving policy that is configured to archive internal and external IM
conversations.
C. Create a user-level archiving policy that is configured to archive external IM traffic. Assign the
policy to
the Traders group.
D. Create a user-level archiving policy that is configured to archive internal and external IM traffic.
Assign
the policy to the HR group.
E. Configure the global archiving policy to archive internal IM conversations.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 You have a Lync Server 2010 infrastructure that contains an Edge Server named Edge1. Five
hundred
remote users connect to Edge1 from the Internet. Each user has a SIP address that uses a suffix of
@contoso.com. You deploy an Edge Server named Edge2 that has Lync Server 2013 deployed. You
create a host (A) record that points to edge2.contoso.com. You need to ensure that 20 remote users
connect to Edge2. All other remote users must continue to connect to Edge1. What should you do?
A. Create a service location (SRV) record that points to edge2.contoso.com.
B. Instruct the users to modify the Advanced Connection Settings of their Microsoft Lync client.
C. Create an alias (CNAME) record that points to edge2.contoso.com.
D. Instruct the users to modify the sign-in address of the Microsoft Lync client.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure. You create a new common area phone. You need
to
configure the common area phone for hot desking. The solution must enable hot desking for the
common
area phone only. What should you do?
A. Create a per-user voice policy and assign the policy to a Phone object.
B. Create a per-user client policy and assign the policy to a Phone object.
C. Modify the global client policy.
D. Modify the global voice policy.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office has 3,000 users. The
branch office
has 100 users. The offices are connected via a WAN link. You have a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure.
The main office has a pool named Pool1 that contains two Enterprise Edition Front End Servers. The
branch office only contains an Active Directory domain controller and a file server. You need to
recommend a high-availability solution to ensure that users can establish calls if one of the
following
components fails:
¡ ¤A Front End Serve
¡ ¤A PSTN gatewa
¡ ¤A WAN router The solution must minimize deployment andmaintenance costs. What should you
recommend?
A. In the branch office, deploy an SBA named SBA1. Configure SBA1 to use Pool1 as a backup
registrar.
Configure two trunks in Pool1. Configure one trunk in SBA1.
B. In the branch office, deploy a second Enterprise Edition pool named Pool2. Configure Pool1 to
use
Pool2 as a backup pool. Configure one trunk in Pool1. Configure one trunk in Pool2.
C. In the branch office, deploy a second Enterprise Edition pool named Pool2. Configure Pool1 to
use
Pool2 as a backup pool. Configure two trunks in Pool1. Configure two trunks in Pool2.
D. In the main office, deploy a second Enterprise Edition pool named Pool2. In the branch office,
deploy
an SBA named SBA1. Configure SBA1 to use Pool2 as a backup registrar. Configure two trunks in
Pool1.
Configure two trunks in SBA1.
Answer: A

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Best Cloudera CCD-410 test training guide

NO.1 For each intermediate key, each reducer task can emit:
A. As many final key-value pairs as desired. There are no restrictions on the types of those key-value
pairs (i.e., they can be heterogeneous).
B. As many final key-value pairs as desired, but they must have the same type as the intermediate
key-value pairs.
C. As many final key-value pairs as desired, as long as all the keys have the same type and all the
values have the same type.
D. One final key-value pair per value associated with the key; no restrictions on the type.
E. One final key-value pair per key; no restrictions on the type.
Answer: C

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Reference: Hadoop Map-Reduce Tutorial; Yahoo! Hadoop Tutorial, Module 4: MapReduce

NO.2 You've written a MapReduce job that will process 500 million input records and generated 500
million key-value pairs. The data is not uniformly distributed. Your MapReduce job will create a
significant amount of intermediate data that it needs to transfer between mappers and reduces
which is a potential bottleneck. A custom implementation of which interface is most likely to reduce
the amount of intermediate data transferred across the network?
A. Partitioner
B. OutputFormat
C. WritableComparable
D. Writable
E. InputFormat
F. Combiner
Answer: F

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Explanation:
Combiners are used to increase the efficiency of a MapReduce program. They are used to aggregate
intermediate map output locally on individual mapper outputs. Combiners can help you reduce the
amount of data that needs to be transferred across to the reducers. You can use your reducer code
as a combiner if the operation performed is commutative and associative.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, What are
combiners? When should I use a combiner in my MapReduce Job?

NO.3 To process input key-value pairs, your mapper needs to lead a 512 MB data file in memory.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Serialize the data file, insert in it the JobConf object, and read the data into memory in the
configure method of the mapper.
B. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the map method of
the mapper.
C. Place the data file in the DataCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of the
mapper.
D. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the configure method
of the mapper.
Answer: C

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NO.4 On a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), a TaskTracker heartbeats into the JobTracker on
your cluster, and alerts the JobTracker it has an open map task slot.
What determines how the JobTracker assigns each map task to a TaskTracker?
A. The amount of RAM installed on the TaskTracker node.
B. The amount of free disk space on the TaskTracker node.
C. The number and speed of CPU cores on the TaskTracker node.
D. The average system load on the TaskTracker node over the past fifteen (15) minutes.
E. The location of the InsputSplit to be processed in relation to the location of the node.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
The TaskTrackers send out heartbeat messages to the JobTracker, usually every few minutes, to
reassure the JobTracker that it is still alive. These message also inform the JobTracker of the number
of available slots, so the JobTracker can stay up to date with where in the cluster work can be
delegated. When the JobTracker tries to find somewhere to schedule a task within the MapReduce
operations, it first looks for an empty slot on the same server that hosts the DataNode containing the
data, and if not, it looks for an empty slot on a machine in the same rack.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How JobTracker
schedules a task?

NO.5 In a MapReduce job, the reducer receives all values associated with same key. Which statement
best describes the ordering of these values?
A. The values are in sorted order.
B. The values are arbitrarily ordered, and the ordering may vary from run to run of the same
MapReduce job.
C. The values are arbitrary ordered, but multiple runs of the same MapReduce job will always have
the same ordering.
D. Since the values come from mapper outputs, the reducers will receive contiguous sections of
sorted values.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note:
*Input to the Reducer is the sorted output of the mappers.
*The framework calls the application's Reduce function once for each unique key in the sorted
order.
*Example:
For the given sample input the first map emits:
< Hello, 1>
< World, 1>
< Bye, 1>
< World, 1>
The second map emits:
< Hello, 1>
< Hadoop, 1>
< Goodbye, 1>
< Hadoop, 1>

NO.6 Table metadata in Hive is:
A. Stored as metadata on the NameNode.
B. Stored along with the data in HDFS.
C. Stored in the Metastore.
D. Stored in ZooKeeper.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
By default, hive use an embedded Derby database to store metadata information.
The metastore is the "glue" between Hive and HDFS. It tells Hive where your data files live in
HDFS, what type of data they contain, what tables they belong to, etc.
The Metastore is an application that runs on an RDBMS and uses an open source ORM layer
called DataNucleus, to convert object representations into a relational schema and vice versa.
They chose this approach as opposed to storing this information in hdfs as they need the
Metastore to be very low latency. The DataNucleus layer allows them to plugin many different
RDBMS technologies.
Note:
*By default, Hive stores metadata in an embedded Apache Derby database, and other
client/server databases like MySQL can optionally be used.
*features of Hive include:
Metadata storage in an RDBMS, significantly reducing the time to perform semantic checks during
query execution.
Reference: Store Hive Metadata into RDBMS

NO.7 You want to understand more about how users browse your public website, such as which
pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a farm of 200 web servers hosting your website.
How will you gather this data for your analysis?
A. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume.
B. Write a MapReduce job, with the web servers for mappers, and the Hadoop cluster nodes for
reduces.
C. Import all users' clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop, using Sqoop.
D. Channel these clickstreams inot Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming.
E. Sample the weblogs from the web servers, copying them into Hadoop using curl.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You write MapReduce job to process 100 files in HDFS. Your MapReduce algorithm uses
TextInputFormat: the mapper applies a regular expression over input values and emits key-values
pairs with the key consisting of the matching text, and the value containing the filename and byte
offset. Determine the difference between setting the number of reduces to one and settings the
number of reducers to zero.
A. There is no difference in output between the two settings.
B. With zero reducers, no reducer runs and the job throws an exception. With one reducer, instances
of matching patterns are stored in a single file on HDFS.
C. With zero reducers, all instances of matching patterns are gathered together in one file on HDFS.
With one reducer, instances of matching patterns are stored in multiple files on HDFS.
D. With zero reducers, instances of matching patterns are stored in multiple files on HDFS. With one
reducer, all instances of matching patterns are gathered together in one file on HDFS.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* It is legal to set the number of reduce-tasks to zero if no reduction is desired.
In this case the outputs of the map-tasks go directly to the FileSystem, into the output path set by
setOutputPath(Path). The framework does not sort the map-outputs before writing them out to the
FileSystem.
* Often, you may want to process input data using a map function only. To do this, simply set
mapreduce.job.reduces to zero. The MapReduce framework will not create any reducer tasks.
Rather, the outputs of the mapper tasks will be the final output of the job.
Note:
Reduce
In this phase the reduce(WritableComparable, Iterator, OutputCollector, Reporter) method is
called for each <key, (list of values)> pair in the grouped inputs.
The output of the reduce task is typically written to the FileSystem via
OutputCollector.collect(WritableComparable, Writable).
Applications can use the Reporter to report progress, set application-level status messages and
update Counters, or just indicate that they are alive.
The output of the Reducer is not sorted.

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NO.1 In the Form Editor, which two navigation group-related actions can you perform? Each correct
answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create a navigation group.
B. Move items from one navigation group to another.
C. Rename a navigation group.
D. Delete a navigation group.
E. Hide a navigation group from a security role.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A custom entity is no longer required.What should you do before deleting the entity?
A. Remove the entity from any required security roles.
B. Check whether the entity has any dependencies.
C. Reassign all the records in the entity.
D. Change the entity ownership to Organization.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You need to track referrals for Leads, Opportunities, and a custom entity named
Events.Referrals can be of type Direct, Indirect, Family, Friend, or Colleague.
You need to track the referral source and type.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Event entity to allow connections.Create a connection role for each referral
type.For each connection role, set the record types to Lead, Opportunity, and Event.
B. Create a custom option set field named Referral on the Contact form.
C. Add a single line text field named Referral to the Leads, Opportunities, and Events forms.
D. Create native many-to-many (N:N) relationships between each of the entities: Leads,
Opportunities, and Events.Then customize the intersecting entity of the relationship by adding a
referral option set.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which action can you perform with a Lookup view?
A. Create a new view based on the Lookup view.
B. Delete the Lookup view.
C. Customize the Lookup view.
D. Set the Lookup view as the default view.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement about the modification of Microsoft Dynamics CRM Solutions is true?
A. The terms "customization" and "configuration" can be used interchangeably.
B. Having an external partner perform customizations reduces the number of requirements that
must be met by the customizations.
C. Customizing Microsoft Dynamics CRM often requires the use of third-party development tools.
D. Extending Microsoft Dynamics CRM is constrained by the capabilities of the user interface.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What defines the form or forms to which a specific business rule is applied?
A. Logic
B. Action
C. Scope
D. Condition
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two methods can you use to open a Quick Create form? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. In a form that has a lookup field, click the search button and then click New.
B. After performing a search in a lookup field, click the search button, click Look Up More Records,
and then click New.
C. Click the Create button on the navigation bar, and then click the entity for which you want to
create the record.
D. In a subgrid, click New, click the search button, click Look Up More Records, and then click New.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of stages a business process can contain?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
Answer: D

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